In the frame where the motion is occurring, the moving object has kinetic energy, an observable, and the object at rest does not... How does one tell the difference between something in motion and something at rest?...
In the frame where the motion is occurring, the moving object has kinetic energy, an observable, and the object at rest does not... How does one tell the difference between something in motion and something at rest?...
No you are not doing what you state in text I have made red. The past does not exist. Only the present does. You are NOW seeing Alpha Cetauri as it was 4.3 million years ago. Exactly the same as if you were watching a video record on your monitor of your first steps as a child - neither that child nor the Alpha Cetauri you are watching exist now in that earlier form. Books also record things that happened a few thousand years ago but you can not "look into the past" and see Kepler working on his three laws.Sure, I'm doing that in "my present" but I'm looking into the past of Alpha Cetauri 4.3 years ago. ...
I of course agree.I thought Lee Smolin's response was rather dismissive and irrelevant myself. IMHO he didn't address Billy's point, and falsely accused him of a fallacy. Utterly unconvincing.
In the original matrix formulism of QM, time is already absent! - no need for me to remove it. Time only appears as apartial derivative in the wave equation form - a procedure, not any thing real. (As a parameter, t, can appear in either form but not as an observable with an Eigen value. In this QM is no different from classical mechanics. For example, the Hamiltionian is the total energy of the system and part that is potential which often has the t parameter describing it. The pendulum has PE varying as sin(wt). etc.)http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Matrix_mechanics said:Matrix mechanics was the first conceptually autonomous and logically consistent formulation of quantum mechanics. It extended the Bohr Model by describing how the quantum jumps occur. … Pauli derived the hydrogen atom spectrum in 1926, before the development of wave mechanics. … It is equivalent to the Schrödinger wave formulation of quantum mechanics, and is the basis of Dirac's bra–ket notation for the wave function. … The matrix formulation was built on the premise that all physical observables are represented by matrices, whose elements are indexed by two different energy levels. The set of eigenvalues of the matrix were eventually understood to be the set of all possible values that the observable can have. … To make the transition to modern quantum mechanics, the most important further addition was the quantum state vector, now written |ψ⟩, which is the vector that the matrices act on. Without the state vector, it is not clear which particular motion the Heisenberg matrices are describing, since they include all the motions somewhere.
You're welcome, Farsight. I agree, the language can get too technical at times lol.
Hi, Matt. What are your thoughts regarding nonlocality? Can nonlocality be used as an argument or proof that time does not exist, or should we sacrifice space for the sake of time?
You could address my previous response:HI Tashja,
Re : What are your thoughts regarding nonlocality?
Can nonlocality be used as an argument or proof that time does not exist, or should we sacrifice space for the sake of time?
That’s a very good question because it kind of brings two concepts together... if time does exist, what is instantaneous messaging, and if time does not exist, what is instantaneous messaging...
If I can restate my position, I researched my book effectively trying to find a reason not to write it (I'm pretty lazy : ) That is looking to see who else had my approach, ie if I thought I had a truly unique insight, but in fact it was old hat.
( Sadly I couldn’t find anything else with the same approach, so no excuse, and I had to go to all the effort or actually writing it to get it out of my system)
So let me explain the approach. As I say, I'm suggesting that perhaps the universe is just filled with matter/energy/space, everywhere, and all this stuff is just moving changing and interacting.
Where I suggest that to people, oddly they don’t seem to actually think about it, but just rush on to keep asking me about a thing called “time”, and a “past” or a “future”, and whether it exists, or is linked with space, (or how it works with non-locality) etc.
But consider... “what I'm suggesting is that perhaps the universe is just filled with matter/energy/space, everywhere, and all this stuff is just moving changing and interacting”.
And that’s it. Period
I'm not saying I know how the universe could be that way, or how it might come into existence that way, or why it may be that way etc ( but then neither does the theory of time explain these things).
What I am asking is..
“what IF things may just exist, move and interact. Not heading into a future, or leaving a past behind, etc”?
“would this be enough to mislead us into wrongly assuming a thing called time exists?”
And I'm trying to show people how those questions might be used as a scientific tool, or key.
e.g. in any situation like nonlocality, you can look at an experiment demonstrating nonlocality with all the various theories of time, (ie that pov or assumption) and see what sense you can make, but you can also look at it with my questions, or pov, and see how it looks from there.
I'm not really familiar with nonlocality, (I assume you mean quantum entanglement), i.e. I know that I don’t know about it, I don’t understand the experiment, or how the conclusion makes sense, so I have to leave that undecided ( in a good way) in my mind ( i.e. I think it is silly to jump to a conclusion and think just defending it is the same as it being right).
But in an attempt to answer
“Can nonlocality be used as an argument or proof that time does not exist?”
I think perhaps neither yes or no. Because, the problem with “time” is it relies (imo) on our acceptance of unobservables, questionable associations, and seemingly circular logic without an observable foundation.
e.g. “of course the past exists, because time exists and passes”... “of course time exists because things move”, and “things move in time”, and “time exists because the past does”
so imo, nonlocality , may neither prove or disprove time, ( though I haven’t thought this through deeply at this point).
My position is that perhaps things just exist and move and interact spatially... so for me, without a deeper understanding, nonlocality would require a message to be sent not through time in any way ( surely the whole concept requires only the present, so eliminates time) – but at infinite speed. An Idea I really don’t like at all.
should we sacrifice space for the sake of time?
I'm not quite sure what you mean here, (i'm suggesting things may just move in 3d space ( with SR/GR dilation in rates of change but not over "time") - so definitely no sacrifice of space, im just questioning if extra to motion, "time" should be in the mix at all - ie im trying to tell everyone to take a step back - i know it looks like time exists , if you assume time exists... we all know that, but lets recheck that assumption)
but perhaps you can clarify to yourself what you mean by "should we sacrifice space for the sake of time?"if you can consider it against my key questions again,
“what IF things may just exist, move and interact. Not heading into a future, or leaving a past behind, etc”?
“would this be enough to mislead us into wrongly assuming a thing called time exists?”
You may see that what I'm trying to do is SLOW everyone down, and get them to really check wheter this time thing needs to be in any conversation, as opposed to RUSHING head long in to integrating it fully in complex conversations, and then trying to work out whats going on.
To summarise,
I don’t understand the nonlocality experiments at all ( I don’t understand how they confirm spin up here, make spin down there instantly, or even precisely what a waveform collapse is), so I cant give a firm answer.
But, the reason I think what I'm suggesting may have value, is because it it questions and reinterprets the heart of Special Relativity, and so much of the noise, and quote chucking on this and other forums rests on understand SR correctly. And I assume much of QM has Gr in corporate, and that rests on minkowskis interpretation of SR –
Henceforth space by itself, and time by itself, are doomed to fade away into mere shadows, and only a kind of union of the two will preserve an independent reality. – Hermann Minkowski,
Which I think has a very significant error in it, that permeates all sensible converastios about “time”.
(ive suggested Paddoboy checks section 1, kinematics, of “The Electrodynamics of Moving Bodies “, we shall see)
https://sites.google.com/site/abrie...ivity/on-the-electrodynamics-of-moving-bodies
sorry if that’s not concise, but do you get the idea that whatever your personal knowledge or area etc, you may be able to use these questions...
1- “what IF things may just exist, move and interact. Not heading into a future, or leaving a past behind, etc”?
2 - “would this be enough to mislead us into wrongly assuming a thing called time exists?”
To reach your own conclusions, or at least see new povs ?
(and if you can make an observation that 1, and or 2, then you may have seriously questioned my position ( so let me know : ) )
Matthew marsden
Ps pls can you apply those questions to what you are thinking about re nonlocality, and let me know how it goes?
It is really not the "big deal" most assume. It is simply true (in conflict with your eperineces) that one thing can be spread out - in two or more widely separated places. The link I give in post 148* tells how I knew ONE photon was at least 4 feet from its self during its trip to the screen.... I don’t understand the nonlocality experiments at all ( I don’t understand how they confirm spin up here, make spin down there instantly, or even precisely what a waveform collapse is), ...
How does one observe kinetic energy?In the frame where the motion is occurring, the moving object has kinetic energy, an observable, and the object at rest does not.
I don't have my copy handy, but try the General Scholium and the descriptive matter following the laws of motion.Please quote where. (Use his indexing of paragraphs). I have carefully read, (checking his proofs) about 1/3 of "Principia Mathematica" and then skimmed it all. I don't think your statement is true. Have you actually read that some where in "Principia Mathematica" or are you just extending your conformation bias there?
You can't if your only observation of an object with KE is at one "now" but we don't live in one now. We experience a continuous sequence of "nows." The motion or KE is deduced from this sequence. These "nows" are arranged (by nature) in a series of before and afters. The brick a cm from you nose in a "before now" may be with out any KE - still be there in an after now; but if your nose is bleeding in that after now, and the brick is closer to the floor, then you can safely conclude it had KE and motion is in the "before now."How does one observe kinetic energy?
Take your time - I'll wait for the location. Quite honestly, it has been years since I read him., but as I recall, Newton never actually collects his many results into the "laws of motion" as Kepler did.I don't have my copy handy, but try the General Scholium and the descriptive matter following the laws of motion.
I went there, but found no question in the entire post, which did seem reasonable to me. What is it you want "addressed."?You could address my previous response:
http://www.sciforums.com/threads/what-is-time.143040/page-7#post-3243916
So, your argument against the existence of time is that, in order to do science, we have to do a number of observations at different times.You can't if your only observation of an object with KE is at one "now" but we don't live in one now. We experience a continuous sequence of "nows." The motion or KE is deduced from this sequence. These "nows" are arranged (by nature) in a series of before and afters. The brick a cm from you nose in a "before now" may be with out any KE - still be there in an after now; but if your nose is bleeding in that after now, and the brick is closer to the floor, then you can safely conclude it had KE and motion is in the "before now."
Almost every thing changes. Candles burn away, etc. but time is not causing that change in the candle's atoms -a chemical reaction with O2 is. At the atomic level, often you can not tell which is the before and which is the now or after. I.e. "time's arrow" is a large scale statical thing. On that QM level, nature does not arrange things in a series of "nows." - That should cause the "time is real" believers to think a little as it "flows both ways.".
Thanks for looking. The post was in the context of several posts prior by MattMars and myself, and my position is that a functioning individual uses the concept of time to maintain some orderliness in the memories captured. It seems self-evident though, but justifies our preocupation with measuring time using a concept of a continuum of "nows".I went there, but found no question in the entire post, which did seem reasonable to me. What is it you want "addressed."?
That is quite practical, suggesting we think about the definition, and being careful not to get off on the wrong direction by assuming a thing called time exists. I'm not surprised that people get it wrong, what with all of the conditioning we get as individuals as we grow up; our schedules, or daily habits, our fascination with clocks and watches when we are young, our admonitions not to be "late",etc.
But I don't think you are approaching the subject with adequate appreciation for what a human individual is in terms of functionality. My point is that although the now is the only moment we are ever in, and so one can claim that time does not pass in the now, we humans have internal equipment to remember past "nows", and can therefore establish our own means of orderliness in how we associate the memories of past nows. That orderliness for me is best accomplished by considering the "nows" that I remember has having a timeline that is often referred to as a continuum of nows. With that timeline of past nows, I, as an individual, can manage and use my memories of the past to benefit me in the current now.
“what IF things may just exist, move and interact. Not heading into a future, or leaving a past behind, etc”?
“would this be enough to mislead us into wrongly assuming a thing called time exists?”
I don't think you are approaching the subject with adequate appreciation for what a human individual is in terms of functionality.
My point is that although the now is the only moment we are ever in, and so one can claim that time does not pass in the now,
one can claim that time does not pass in the now,
we humans have internal equipment to remember past "now’s", and can therefore establish our own means of orderliness in how we associate the memories of past now’s.
That orderliness for me is best accomplished by considering the "now’s" that I remember has having a timeline that is often referred to as a continuum of now’s.
- is there actually a "past" ?
With that timeline of past now’s, I, as an individual, can manage and use my memories of the past to benefit me in the current now.
A - if things exist, move, and interact 'over time'.
AND,
B - IF things may just exist, move and interact. i.e. Not heading into a future, or leaving a past behind, or as a thing called time passes ( or any variation of those).
All points noted Billy.I of course agree.True that once we consider quantum mechanic equations it is more complex / difficult to eliminate time as multi-values of observables with different probabilities will result; however, QM only is concerned with observable, not time. In the original matrix formulism of QM, time is already absent...
Yes need more than a picture of one "now" to "do science" but NO that is not my PROOF of post 28 where I show no reference to time is needed to COMPLETELY describe the entire observable universe.So, your argument against the existence of time is that, in order to do science, we have to do a number of observations at different times.
No, you showed a proof that, in classical mechanics, we don't need to include time to describe a certain finite set of properties relative to one another. That's far, far from a complete description and it is far from the best approximate description.Yes need more than a picture of one "now" to "do science" but NO that is not my PROOF of post 28 where I show no reference to time is needed to COMPLETELY describe the entire observable universe.
Sure. And if you want to do science with only observables, go to it. You're not going to get very far.My second argument, not proof, is that all observable do have at least one detectable characteristic and time has none. Not even a shadow or smell.
when is any object at rest ?In the frame where the motion is occurring, the moving object has kinetic energy, an observable, and the object at rest does not.