for these reasons your examples are invalid.
two solid 0K temperature objects are hardly conscious of anything.
if there's an observer in this universe, in order for him to be conscious he must not be at 0K temperature. he must sustain repetitive motion of neurons or another processing mechanism to actually notice and be conscious of anything to be "happening". if he satisfies these conditions then he also has an internal "clock" and can observe the two solid bodies continue to attract each other after they reach 0 relative motion.
I can't argue with that. If you believe that time requires an internal observer (and you might be correct on that), then there would always be motion within this setup... as I would assume that consciousness requires (neural) motion. I was proposing observing this system/universe from the outside.
If you can imagine the setup I suggest and agree that an internal observer changes the result, then you see my point. Time for the two bodies exists or doesn't exist based on the presence or absence of some 3rd parties (like an observer... or some other 3rd body moving at a different velocity). To me this doesn't make sense as I don't believe the existence of time can be turned on/off by the presence of something else in the system.
Also, I have a problem believing that time didn't exist before consciousness. It's like suggesting that the majority of time from the big bang until life occurred was free of any time, even though astronomical observations appear to show otherwise. Of course I can't back this up, perhaps the whole universe was "alive" from the beginning of time.
However, I do suspect that forward "motion" through time is related to consciousness. So my general belief is "consciousness requires time" but not "time requires consciousness".
the gravity between them is not a force anyway, but space-time or better yet space-motion curvature. this makes their movement inertial in relativity which does not recognize gravity as a force. which means they never really reached 0 relative motion, they had the same motion all the time, but it only seemed that they are deccelerating through the curved space-time "lense".
I disagree. But I'd like to call in a referee on this. In my call: the two objects at the apex of their seperation are have 0 relative motion. Even though they are experiencing opposite and equal gravitional warping, they are in the same inertial phrame at that moment.
And I disagree with "they had the same motion all the time". They truly are decelerating. I think you are referring to objects in orbit which follow a "straight path" when considering the gravitational pull that occurs on space and time.
But forget all this then. Here is a much more simple example:
1. An object is in the universe with no accellerating or conscious parts to it. Does this body exist in time?
2. Now add a second body in some other region of this universe moving at a relatively seperate velocity. Now does time exist on the first body?
There is the problem. Time exists/doesn't in 1 depending on whether you consider or leave out 2.
The simplest solution is to assume that time requires consciousness and consciousness requires motion and disallow 1 and 2 without an internal observer.
But for me... the tree does emit sound waves as it falls in the forest, whether your there to hear it or not.