Hi pete! Welcome
I took the liberty to edit a little,
Since it wasnt clear what you meant by "it"
it was replaced by what I think it meant.
Not under different interpretations.
There is no single interpretation of sentence two that is both empirically tryue but logically false.
Any interpretation that is empirically true has no logical truth value.
That's right, "Sentence 1 is not empirically true" is a different example.
Do you agree that it is logically true?
Now smog thickens!
What is an interpretation?
Is it the same as an understanding?
If a statement can be interpretated in several ways,
can it then really be one, and one statement only?
The laws of logic only applies to statements having only one interpretatiom,
and "interpretation" in that sense means that the statement can be understood only in one way.
Logicians first move (after deciding what logic laws to adhere to) is to decide
what they will accept as well formed sentences of the language in use,
and then they assign truth value to sentenses in a truthfunctional way...
That is that if "a" is true and "b" is true then "a and b" is also true. And this they call an "
interpretation". And here its not the same as "understanding" right? Then they start examining proofs...Example:
1 a
2 b
3 a and b
And they will claim that sentence 3 follows from sentences 1 and 2.
HOW "a" gets its truth value is not considered to be a question of logic, it is said to belong to Semantics...
That is, of course, if "a" is an atomic sentence:
The sentence "a and b" is molecular and receives its value from sentences "a" and "b".
In our discussion it is of
extreme importance that we understand HOW sentences gets truth values
so I dont accept a separation between Semantic and Logic!
There is a (possibly) artificial separation between statement and argument (= PROOF) Any proof consists of numbered statements and if you "add" them together you form a statement.
So far you have given no proof! Only statements, and you want me to tell if the sentence "1 Sentence 1 is not empirically true." is logically true.
Here is a truth: IF "1 Sentence 1 is not empirically true." is logically true then it follows from logical truths.
So far I have found no such proof...
But I HAVE found at least one proof that the sentence (x="x is not true") is logically false! And if x = "sentence 1" then the proof proves that there is NO sentence 1 such that Sentence 1 = "Sentence 1 is not true"!
Since Sentence 2 is (Sentence 1 = "Sentence 1 is not true) then sentence 2 is logically false! And heres the proof again:
1 x = "x is not true"
2 x is true if and only if "x is not true" is true
3 X is true if and only if x is not true
If we claim that sentence 1 IS the first sentence in the derivation of the Liar paradox (as the liar identity claims)
then we contradict ourselves!
And Logics reason for being is to save ourselves from contradiction.
So sentence 2 is (as yet) the only example of a sentence that is both empirically true and logically false!
No wonder if you believe there are no such beasts!
Heres the possibilities for any sentence:
1 empirically true (theres many)
2 logically true (theres many)
3 empirically false (theres many)
4 logically false (theres many)
5 empirically true and logically true (probably none)
6
empirically true and logically false (at least one!)
7 empirically false and logically true (probably none)
8 empirically false and logically false (probably none)
We must think through the foundations of logic and semantic...
Easier said than done
![Wink ;) ;)](data:image/gif;base64,R0lGODlhAQABAIAAAAAAAP///yH5BAEAAAAALAAAAAABAAEAAAIBRAA7)