The Illusion Of Time - The Fabric Of The Cosmos

This is a crock, as I have just shown above...
????

https://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/Fundamentals_of_Physics/Physics_and_Measurement

A meter is a unit of length, currently defined as the distance light travels within 1/299782458th of a second.

It is defined this way because the speed of light is known invariant. Before relativity, a meter was defined by a physical standard of length kept in a bell jar at controlled temperature and pressure. The standard was eventually changed to s standard number of wavelengths of photons produced by a particular hyperfine energy transition of a rare element. Of course, the invariance of the speed of light does not depend on any particular wavelength because they all travel at c in a vacuum.

If you think this is a "crock", then the rest of your questions don't matter at all. Do you have this understanding or not? A light year is not the only standard to which light's invariance in a vacuum has been applied. It applies to literally dozens of them. A standard "Jiffy' is about a 20 picoseconds, or just under a centimeter of light travel time. A light nanosecond is about a foot in physical length. I used this relation frequently in a very long and successful engineering career, for phase tracking and group delay equalization, to name only two such applications.

What technical career could you possibly have that you would think it was a "crock" that the speed of light was related to a standard of distance measurement? Have you not used any instruments that depend on calibration standards in your work? They are calibrated to laboratory standards traceable to these.
 
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I see no reason to reject the ether as moot.
Then you have missed the point of the half a century that led to modern physics. If there is no "ether wind" then what use was their unfounded belief in it in the first place?

The laws of electrodynamics have been discovered by an ether theoretician,
No, the people who discovered relativity of this kind were empiricists. The main theoreticians were Maxwell, Poincare, Lorentz and Einstein. All of the findings of that era were consolidated into Einstein's 1905 paper. So now you have to decide what a theoretician is, when his or her work is entirely founded on empirical data.

But you seem to mean this as disparaging term, and as way to insinuate ether mythology into the thread. Please state where any of the folks I mentioned propounded either data or empirical explanations (theories) which hinged on the need for an aether wind. Then please explain what happened when the aether wind was disproved. Upon slogging through that, you will see what I meant by "moot".

and special relativity in itself gives nothing (EM theory was already Lorentz invariant).
Wrong. It was the conclusion of Fitzeau et al, which gave rise to more and better ways to study light speed. Not sure what your point is about electromagnetics. I am saying that the fact that the Lorentz factor explains the experimental results, given the findings that c is invariant, was Einstein's big contribution (just capping off what Poincare and Lorentz were on the verge of stating) but then giving us that great thought experiment, which no doubt had occupied his thoughts while a boy, learning about his father's work.

It is not part of academic curricula. People who are interested in such questions know it.
Anything not in the academic curricula is either fresh news or junk. Academia is interested in all aspects of this subject, so the second statement looks worse than grim.

I am aware of that article but I don't see any relevance to whatever you are propounding, which appears to be an attack on science and academia by trying to insinuate the ancient unfounded belief in aether into actual science, which showed that unfounded belief to be worse than unfounded. It was completely wrong.

If two clocks follow different paths, they show different times if they are compared later.
The subject here is special relativity. The clocks disagree because one left the reference frame, and rejoined it later. Your prior statement was not correct because there is not always any appreciable influence on an experiment due to gravity. It requires that the gradient be crossed, and it complicated the discussion quite a bit. I say put that aside and let's stick with the experiments that motivated Einstein (prior to 1905) none of which had anything to do with gravity wells. Then, when we get past all of your attacks on science, we can move on to these other more complicated cases.

But they were initially synchronized (at the same initial time $$t_0$$) and when they are compared at the end, this also happens at the same moment of time $$t_1$$. But they show different numbers, numbers which depend on their trajectory, and computed by the formula $$\tau = \int_{t_0}^{t_1} \sqrt{1-v(t)^2/c^2} dt$$.
You are entirely resting your complaints on the ways clocks work. Please identify one experiment prior to Einstein's 1905 paper which employed a clock. When you find none, please admit that Einstein's results in 1905 were just fine.

So clocks do not measure time, which would be $$t_1-t_0$$, but something different.
You brought up clocks, I said, let's defer that to a thread on instrumentation. Now let's talk about the actual instruments used in the late 19th c.

Something which is, for small velocities, quite close to $$t_1-t_0$$, so that clocks can be used in everyday applications as if they would measure time, but they do not measure time.
Again, scuttle that boat.

The math I do not subscribe is GR math.
Good. Put GR to bed for now, too. This thread is talking about the video.

The math which is required for topologically nontrivial solutions.
I am beginning to think you are sure what you just said. I am only partly sure, and that last bit sounds like a mistaken notion.

In my preferred GR interpretation, there exists a preferred system of coordinates - harmonic coordinates.
Let's get back to what the experimental data requires, not what anyone prefers.

The experiment shows in a quite obvious way that light rays are influenced by gravity. That they don't follow straight lines is a quite trivial consequence.
This grossly misstates relativity. Again, there are (at least) TWO frames. In one frame, light is observed to take a straight path. In another, it is curved. That's pretty much what we mean by "relativity". The observations do not match.

SR remains a nice no-gravity approximation.
Wrong, it is perfectly correct for applications which may sit in a gravity well, but never cross the gradient. That includes, for example, the interferometer sitting sit on a bench while someone is looking for your ether. And not finding it.

My point is not that the error is big or small, but that the error exists, is well-known and accepted by the mainstream, so that SR is false.
No, there is no error at all in the applications I cited above, and in most other cases they are smaller in magnitude than the instrumentation can measure. That says nothing about the truth of SR. It says the experimenter was not trying to measure anything crossing a gravitational gradient.

Many false theories work nicely as approximations in situations where the error is small enough to be irrelevant.
You have reached that conclusion by making assumptions that have nothing to do with actual science. Go take a basic class that does some lab measurements and you will be cured of your error as soon as you are on the chopping block (pass or fail) for reporting your measurements accurately.

I linked to arxiv.org, and on arxiv.org you can always download the full texts without any paywalls.
Post the cite and prove what you just said.

The download is free on arxiv.org, that's why I give links to arxiv.org.
Check that; prove me wrong.

The abstract is not absurd, the paper is published in a mainstream journal. The theory is, of course, not mainstream.
Yes the abstract says nothing useful or meaningful. No, the "journal" is not mainstream. I see no text so I have no idea what you are talking about. The journal in question may be OK but show us how often it has been cited. How many times has your paper been cited? And where is your paper? Looks like a scam to me.

As if I would care. You can download it for free, and you can ignore it.
Not unless you provide a link. As I said, you gave no link to the article itself, there is a link on the page you gave us, but it shows a $40 fee to get the paper. Follow your own links, bro, and check your work before posting. Or correct me if I goofed. But I wasted too much time already trying to prove that any such paper even exists.

Ah, your are some paddoboy2, also submissive to authority? Ok, good buy, have a nice day.
No, I like paddo, but he rises through the screed by actually learning this stuff as an amateur. I myself went through formal training and a career. So you can get off the gas; I see no paper and for some reason your seem determined not to provide it. The dumb little abstract is useless. We need a proposition with all the rationale fleshed out. We need cites (I think I saw 50 references, but no text to link them to).

Have it your way. But why appear here just to argue nonsense? The topic is a great one, and so far we haven't even touched on it.
 
Ah, your are some paddoboy2, also submissive to authority? Ok, good buy, have a nice day.
You mean as opposed to be submissive to any of the Tom's, Dick's and Harry's that forums such as this are open too, and the myriad of alternative nuts, anti science fools, fanatical religious ratbags, not to mention the mavericks such as yourself.
Think about that, as your ether paper gathers dust and fades into oblivion.
 
Units on the left are energy (joules) and on the right it's mass and velocity squared. Nothing at all like you cast it.

OK

A meter is a unit of length, currently defined as the distance light travels within 1/299782458th of a second.
Ok but you are oversimplifying (see below).

It is defined this way because the speed of light is known invariant.
Yeah, but c is not in that measurement. Time is. And time is not invariant; it's relative. Hence, the standards expert will understand that she has to calibrate; she needs to know at what altitude 1 second was defined in your oversimplification above. In retrospect she will either use a time standard, calibrated for altitude, or self-calibrating, or she simply won't care, since the error will probably be beyond her practical needs.

Before relativity,
That would be before Galileo (or earlier) or else before Fitzeau (1850s) if you are talking about early references to special relativity.

a meter was defined by a physical standard of length kept in a bell jar at controlled temperature and pressure. The standard was eventually changed to s standard number of wavelengths of photons produced by a particular hyperfine energy transition of a rare element. Of course, the invariance of the speed of light does not depend on any particular wavelength because they all travel at c in a vacuum.
Of course, that makes no difference since the measurement requires measuring time, not c, as I stated above.

If you think this is a "crock", then the rest of your questions don't matter at all.
This may be the most accurate thing you have posted so far.

Do you have this understanding or not? A light year is not the only standard to which light's invariance in a vacuum has been applied.
Get off the gas. Besides, the point is moot as explained above.

It applies to literally dozens of them.
A veritable plethora. But irrelevant.

A standard "Jiffy' is about a 20 picoseconds, or just under a centimeter of light travel time. A light nanosecond is about a foot in physical length. I used this relation frequently in a very long and successful engineering career, for phase tracking and group delay equalization, to name only two such applications.
Did you calibrate for your altitude? Oh yeah, the cable you use for cal stretches and contracts at different altitudes, so it all works out fine, doesn't it. Not sure about the rest of the terminations in the cal kit though . . . :rolleyes: Man, I'm really not sure how that works with crystal standards, though . . . seems like it should be OK, but I think more test data is needed here just to be sure . . .

What technical career could you possibly have that you would think it was a "crock" that the speed of light was related to a standard of distance measurement? Have you not used any instruments that depend on calibration standards in your work? They are calibrated to laboratory standards traceable to these.
Ha ha ha. You really are full of it.

Yeah, I understand the scam now, so I won't be feeding the trolls anymore. It's pretty obvious neither of you want to discuss the topic. My bad. (Ignore)
 
No, as I said, to state a scenario which engages special relativity, you must state (1) the preferred reference frame, for which proper time is clocked, and (2) the relative velocity of the moving frame with respect to (1). Since velocity is a vector, the direction information is contained in (2). Further, in calculating the Lorentz factor, which describes the relationship between the amount of time dilation (and space contraction) with regard to (2), relative to (1), since it only requires the scalar speed, and further, since that scalar quantity is squared, any negative sign you are concerned about disappears.

Further, the angles of the velocity vector (as in spherical coordinates) are factored into the Lorentz transformation to begin with.


Thats precisely what I said that direction aspect is hidden in the transformation, you are putting it differently, may be more precisely.

And I fail to understand why you are persisting on this direction issue. Pl see the link below, it gives a generalized math for Lorentz Transformation with arbitrary direction

http://web.cs.iastate.edu/~prabhu/Lorentz/ejp7_2_004.pdf

Then I suggest we go back to what Brian Greene actually presented and decide whether he was right or wrong. I had no such obstacles to overcome when I saw the video (back when it came out). My own reaction was that it was a great way to present ideas to the general public which are exceedingly difficult to comprehend, even for those of us who understand the math (or enough of the math).

[/QUOTE]

I was trying to find out the definition of "Time Travel", I got these two links. They do talk of association of 'time dilation' with time travel, which per say is different from the pupular perception. Wiki definition is more towards popular perception.

http://www.iep.utm.edu/timetrav/
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_travel



But lets simulate a different condition, without using travel as such. What is ageing or biological time, Is it same as the passage of time around us or it is something different (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Biological_clock_(aging)).

Based on this let us create a drug induced (medical intervention) hybernation type situation or drug induced projeria. This condition can be inititated on one of the twins (keeping both of them here on the Earth). [If such medical advancement is not possible in human beings then Amoeba or any parasite or virus or even the sperm or egg twins can be taken]. So now the medically altered twin will follow a different rate on his biological clock. A Time Travel kind of situation is created. So, I cannot have a dispute with anyone associating "Time Travel' with Time Dilation, but to me it appears as twisting of language.
 
No, I will not spend $40 to read your paper.

The paper citation is in standard arXiv form.

Yo can click the link of any arXiv paper as given and on the right hand top, a download link will appear as PDF, and the whole paper will appear...Its free.
 
Yeah, but c is not in that measurement. Time is. And time is not invariant; it's relative. Hence, the standards expert will understand that she has to calibrate; she needs to know at what altitude 1 second was defined in your oversimplification above. In retrospect she will either use a time standard, calibrated for altitude, or self-calibrating, or she simply won't care, since the error will probably be beyond her practical needs.

This appeared quite interesting, as picked up from your dialog with Danshawen. How the variablity of time, in different frames (inertial), will change the "standard of measurement of Length"? Light is expected to travel at 'c' meters in one second in all frames. Are we not settling this with "Length Contraction"?
 
A Time Travel kind of situation is created. So, I cannot have a dispute with anyone associating "Time Travel' with Time Dilation, but to me it appears as twisting of language.

Suspended animation suspends aging, not time.
Time still passes and if taken to the nth degree, yes a person say in suspended animation for say 10 years, then awoken, has not aged biologically but he will be 10 years ahead of the time since he was put in the suspended state.
Time has passed for all except himself.
http://www.alcor.org/Library/html/medicaltimetravel.htm

http://www.21stcentech.com/cryogenics-suspended-animation-humans-travel-deep-space/

Again time dilation being a proven and accepted phenomenon, does lead to what can be called time travel particularly in extreme cases like travelling at very near "c"
 
Then you have missed the point of the half a century that led to modern physics. If there is no "ether wind" then what use was their unfounded belief in it in the first place?
The point of postulating an ether was that the velocity of light does not depend on the velocity of the source. Which is a well-known property of sound waves in condensed matter too.
No, the people who discovered relativity of this kind were empiricists.
??? The point being??? Of course, theoretical physicists can be empiricists, this is simply a particular philosophy of science. The subdivision between experimenters and theoreticians was not that strong at that time than today. None of this has any connection to the fact that Maxwell has developed ether theory.
Please state where any of the folks I mentioned propounded either data or empirical explanations (theories) which hinged on the need for an aether wind. Then please explain what happened when the aether wind was disproved. Upon slogging through that, you will see what I meant by "moot".
There was no need for an ether wind, except in your phantasy. And when the ether wind was disproved, some old ether theories were dead, and a better one was found, the Lorentz ether.
Wrong. It was the conclusion of Fitzeau et al, which gave rise to more and better ways to study light speed. Not sure what your point is about electromagnetics.
Recommendation: If you are not sure, don't say "wrong". The Maxwell equations for electromagnetism, which are used even today, are Lorentz invariant. That this Lorentz invariance has been found only later does not change the fact that these equations were Lorentz invariant already before this was observed.
Anything not in the academic curricula is either fresh news or junk.
As I have said, feel free to ignore my posts. It may be not that stupid for laymen to simply rely on mainstream textbooks and to ignore any alternatives without even taking a look at them.
Academia is interested in all aspects of this subject, so the second statement looks worse than grim.
"People interested in this subject" of course includes scientists too. The mainstream scientists reject the Lorentz ether, for metaphysical reasons, but usually they know that the Lorentz ether is not falsified by MMX and makes the same predictions as SR.
I am aware of that article but I don't see any relevance to whatever you are propounding, which appears to be an attack on science and academia by trying to insinuate the ancient unfounded belief in aether into actual science, which showed that unfounded belief to be worse than unfounded. It was completely wrong.
If there is something completely wrong, present the arguments why. It is one thing to say that you don't know the Lorentz ether, and, given that the mainstream does not support this theory, will ignore it (a reasonable reaction for a layman), and a different one to claim that it is wrong.
The subject here is special relativity. The clocks disagree because one left the reference frame, and rejoined it later. Your prior statement was not correct because there is not always any appreciable influence on an experiment due to gravity.
The clocks do not have to care about any frames, they move following their trajectory, and you can use whatever frame (system of coordinates) you like to describe all clocks all the time. The formula for the time shown by a clock is $$\tau = \int \sqrt{1-v(t)^2/c^2} dt$$ in any inertial system of coordinates, for a clock moving with velocity v(t). And this $$\tau$$ is named proper time. If there is gravity, the formula for proper time becomes different and depends on the gravitational field too,
$$\tau = \int \sqrt{g_{mn}(x,t) dx^m(t) dx^n(t)}$$. My statement was correct for SR as well as GR. If two clocks follow different trajectories, their showings will be identical only by numerical accidents, or because relativistic effects are simply too small so that $$\tau = \int dt$$ is a sufficiently accurate approximation for above clocks.
You are entirely resting your complaints on the ways clocks work. Please identify one experiment prior to Einstein's 1905 paper which employed a clock. When you find none, please admit that Einstein's results in 1905 were just fine.
I make no complaints, and I have never said that Einstein's 1905 paper was not fine.
This thread is talking about the video.
Feel free to talk about videos. I'm interested in science.
Let's get back to what the experimental data requires, not what anyone prefers.
The experimental data require no nontrivial topologies and a single global harmonic system of coordinates is sufficient to describe what we have observed up to now. So you can use the standard GR math as well as GR in harmonic coordinates as preferred. The data do not make any requirements.
This grossly misstates relativity. Again, there are (at least) TWO frames. In one frame, light is observed to take a straight path. In another, it is curved. That's pretty much what we mean by "relativity". The observations do not match.
The word "frame" can, in principle, used to describe also some curved systems of coordinates, but what is usually meant with "frame" in SR talk is an inertial frame. And in any inertial frame light (in vacuum) follows straight lines, always. And different systems of coordinates can be used in Newtonian mechanics too, and the formulas in such curved coordinates will look quite different in NT too. This is simply a standard mathematical technique, which has nothing to do with physics.
Wrong, it is perfectly correct for applications which may sit in a gravity well, but never cross the gradient.
No, there is no error at all in the applications I cited above, and in most other cases they are smaller in magnitude than the instrumentation can measure. That says nothing about the truth of SR. It says the experimenter was not trying to measure anything crossing a gravitational gradient.
It may be approximately correct, but is not perfectly correct. Of course, the error will be in most cases smaller in magnitude than observable. But there will be an error. Every stone lying around creates its own gravitational field, which everybody will ignore, but it will distort the results and destroy your perfection.
You have reached that conclusion by making assumptions that have nothing to do with actual science. Go take a basic class that does some lab measurements and you will be cured of your error as soon as you are on the chopping block (pass or fail) for reporting your measurements accurately.
If you think something is wrong, don't use paddoboy-like accusations, but present arguments.
Post the cite and prove what you just said.
http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0205035 links to http://arxiv.org/pdf/gr-qc/0205035.pdf (upper right corner, download: PDF) which works nicely, as usual, for free. Same for
http://arxiv.org/abs/1409.7812 and http://arxiv.org/pdf/1409.7812v1.pdf
The journal in question may be OK but show us how often it has been cited. How many times has your paper been cited?
I have not claimed it has been cited, and do not expect it will be cited during the next years. One first has to wait until the failure of string theory becomes so obvious that it will be given up, and people really start to search for alternatives.
As I said, you gave no link to the article itself, there is a link on the page you gave us, but it shows a $40 fee to get the paper. Follow your own links, bro, and check your work before posting. Or correct me if I goofed. But I wasted too much time already trying to prove that any such paper even exists.
The link you have found was, of course, to a paywall version. This is standard in modern physics. The journals scam by requiring phantasy prices for the articles, but there is the preprint server arxiv.org, and the physicists put their preprints on this server for free. And if it is published, one puts the text which is published as the actual version to the preprint server and adds a reference. This is how physicists handle the copyright scam of the journals. The published version and the version on the preprint server are usually slightly different in the presentation, but the text is usually the same.
No, I like paddo, but he rises through the screed by actually learning this stuff as an amateur.
If he would refuse from his polemics, he would be a very valuable contributor.
 
If you think something is wrong, don't use paddoboy-like accusations, but present arguments.
You accuse people of ad homs, you deride all arguments against your weird take on science, but see your own abuse as warranted and OK.
You along with the god and Farsight, are the epitome of hypocrisy.
Another ad hom? :rolleyes:

I have not claimed it has been cited, and do not expect it will be cited during the next years. One first has to wait until the failure of string theory becomes so obvious that it will be given up, and people really start to search for alternatives.
Irrespective of the final of string theory either way, your paper will be lost along with many others that have tried to rewrite or modifiy GR, never to rise again.
That is near certain.

If he would refuse from his polemics, he would be a very valuable contributor.
If you were'nt so self obsessed and self indulgent, with your views on science and politics, you just may see how that applies to yourself when cornered.


As I have told you many times, if you had anything of substance, you would not be here......and what do I get back? excuses, conspiracies etc etc, the same argumentive style of most from the fringes.
 
Units on the left are energy (joules) and on the right it's mass and velocity squared. Nothing at all like you cast it.


OK


Ok but you are oversimplifying (see below).


Yeah, but c is not in that measurement. Time is. And time is not invariant; it's relative. Hence, the standards expert will understand that she has to calibrate; she needs to know at what altitude 1 second was defined in your oversimplification above. In retrospect she will either use a time standard, calibrated for altitude, or self-calibrating, or she simply won't care, since the error will probably be beyond her practical needs.


That would be before Galileo (or earlier) or else before Fitzeau (1850s) if you are talking about early references to special relativity.


Of course, that makes no difference since the measurement requires measuring time, not c, as I stated above.


This may be the most accurate thing you have posted so far.


Get off the gas. Besides, the point is moot as explained above.


A veritable plethora. But irrelevant.


Did you calibrate for your altitude? Oh yeah, the cable you use for cal stretches and contracts at different altitudes, so it all works out fine, doesn't it. Not sure about the rest of the terminations in the cal kit though . . . :rolleyes: Man, I'm really not sure how that works with crystal standards, though . . . seems like it should be OK, but I think more test data is needed here just to be sure . . .


Ha ha ha. You really are full of it.

Yeah, I understand the scam now, so I won't be feeding the trolls anymore. It's pretty obvious neither of you want to discuss the topic. My bad. (Ignore)
Not as full of it as someone who has not even a command of simple algebra.

The equation you don't recognize is E=mc^2, possibly the most recognized formula in science. Matter IS bound energy, and all I have done is to rename m and divide both sides of the equation by it. You don't need to apply the rules of dimensional analysis to the problem, because all I have done is interpret it; nothing changed.

There really is no point in any further discussion of science with you, because you don't seem to be a candidate for someone who would benefit from such discussion, even in small measure. It is pointless. I bid you good day, and good luck.
 
You accuse people of ad homs, you deride all arguments against your weird take on science, but see your own abuse as warranted and OK.
You along with the god and Farsight, are the epitome of hypocrisy.
Another ad hom? :rolleyes:
The problem with ad hominem arguments is not that one should not make them (the things which one should not make are named defamations and lies), but that they have low value as arguments. That means, if I name an argument ad hominem, I say that your argument is a quite weak one.

Ad hominem simply means that what is questioned is the person who makes a particular claim, instead of the content of the claim itself. So, ad hominem is often used to hide the fact that one has no arguments about the content. This is what is your problem: you like to use arguments that I'm not an acknowledged authority, but you have no arguments about the content. That's why I reject your arguments as ad hominem, and point to your weak point, that you are unable to argue about the content.

Does it follow that ad hominem is always wrong or even unethical? No. Sometimes I use them too. For example in http://www.sciforums.com/threads/je...f-the-labour-party.152629/page-3#post-3330516 I write "Again a "Russian researcher" with the name Sultan Chamchijew, an activist of the movement for the revival of Ingushian statehood, thus, not a Russian researcher but an Ingush politician.". This is, clearly, an ad hominem argument against this guy. It does not prove that what this guy has said is wrong. It is only arguing against the way this guy has been presented - as a "Russian researcher", which obviously suggest some scientific merits as a "researcher" and that he is - as a Russian - on the Ossetian side of the conflict. But, of course, even an Ingushetian political activist can sometimes tell the truth. So, the argument is not a very powerful one.

The reason for using this weak argument was that it was easy to get, by reading in the linked text the non-Russian name of the "Russian researcher", and identifying him as an Ingushetian political activist by a simple google search. Proving that the content of his claims are false would require, instead, a lot of hard work, and I have more interesting things to do.

In fact, the situation is quite similar to your situation - what you can easily find out, and what I don't even deny, is that my theory is not mainstream. What you are unable to show, as a layman, is if it is wrong or not. So, it is quite natural for you to use ad hominem against my ether theories.

What is the difference? That you repeat your ad hominems endlessly, as if they would be strong, decisive arguments, and that you try to create the impression that they are strong, for example:
Irrespective of the final of string theory either way, your paper will be lost along with many others that have tried to rewrite or modifiy GR, never to rise again.
That is near certain.
This is something I would not do. Of course, your endless repetition of ad hominems causes me to repeat myself and such repetition can create the impression that I somehow think that ad hominem is something horrible and evil. It is not, it is simply a weak argument. (I have a problem also with your otherwise quite aggressive style, but this is another question.)

By the way, my paper has survived the first ten years nicely. Note the date of putting it to arxiv.org: http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0205035 Wed, 8 May 2002. Compare with the date of publication in the journal: Advances in Applied Clifford Algebras 22, 1 (2012). Add as an additional information that this publication was invited by the editor of this journal, quite unexpected for me. At that time, I have not even tried to publish it, because the most important formulas were already published in an appendix of the Foundations of Physics article.
 
You accuse people of ad homs, you deride all arguments against your weird take on science, but see your own abuse as warranted and OK.
You along with the god and Farsight, are the epitome of hypocrisy.
Another ad hom? :rolleyes:
The problem with ad hominem arguments is not that one should not make them (the things which one should not make are named defamations and lies), but that they have low value as arguments. That means, if I name an argument ad hominem, I say that your argument is a quite weak one.

Ad hominem simply means that what is questioned is the person who makes a particular claim, instead of the content of the claim itself. So, ad hominem is often used to hide the fact that one has no arguments about the content. This is what is your problem: you like to use arguments that I'm not an acknowledged authority, but you have no arguments about the content. That's why I reject your arguments as ad hominem, and point to your weak point, that you are unable to argue about the content.

Does it follow that ad hominem is always wrong or even unethical? No. Sometimes I use them too. For example in http://www.sciforums.com/threads/je...f-the-labour-party.152629/page-3#post-3330516 I write "Again a "Russian researcher" with the name Sultan Chamchijew, an activist of the movement for the revival of Ingushian statehood, thus, not a Russian researcher but an Ingush politician.". This is, clearly, an ad hominem argument against this guy. It does not prove that what this guy has said is wrong. It is only arguing against the way this guy has been presented - as a "Russian researcher", which obviously suggest some scientific merits as a "researcher" and that he is - as a Russian - on the Ossetian side of the conflict. But, of course, even an Ingushetian political activist can sometimes tell the truth. So, the argument is not a very powerful one.

The reason for using this weak argument was that it was easy to get, by reading in the linked text the non-Russian name of the "Russian researcher", and identifying him as an Ingushetian political activist by a simple google search. Proving that the content of his claims are false would require, instead, a lot of hard work, and I have more interesting things to do.

In fact, the situation is quite similar to your situation - what you can easily find out, and what I don't even deny, is that my theory is not mainstream. What you are unable to show, as a layman, is if it is wrong or not. So, it is quite natural for you to use ad hominem against my ether theories.

What is the difference? That you repeat your ad hominems endlessly, as if they would be strong, decisive arguments, and that you try to create the impression that they are strong, for example:
Irrespective of the final of string theory either way, your paper will be lost along with many others that have tried to rewrite or modifiy GR, never to rise again.
That is near certain.
This is something I would not do. Of course, your endless repetition of ad hominems causes me to repeat myself and such repetition can create the impression that I somehow think that ad hominem is something horrible and evil. It is not, it is simply a weak argument. (I have a problem also with your otherwise quite aggressive style, but this is another question.)

By the way, my paper has survived the first ten years nicely. Note the date of putting it to arxiv.org: http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0205035 Wed, 8 May 2002. Compare with the date of publication in the journal: Advances in Applied Clifford Algebras 22, 1 (2012). Add as an additional information that this publication was invited by the editor of this journal, quite unexpected for me. At that time, I have not even tried to publish it, because the most important formulas were already published in an appendix of the Foundations of Physics article.
 
The point of postulating an ether was that the velocity of light does not depend on the velocity of the source.
No, aether is an ancient concept. Further, the superstition was disproved for the reason you state above. The constancy of c forbids any medium, aether or otherwise.

Which is a well-known property of sound waves in condensed matter too.
Space is not "uncondensed" matter. Electromagnetic waves traverse free space at c regardless of reference frame which has nothing to do with this. Further, the radiation of acoustic waves in solids, liquids, gases or plasmas exactly follows the radiation of electromagnetic waves in media or free space, at a speed calculated by taking the geometric mean of two intrinsic properties: 1/ε and 1/μ. These have specific meaning in electromagnetics, and in acoustics, there are equivalent properties involved (although the standard symbols for them are different). The analogous rule about reference frames stands in acoustics: thus the ambulance driver hears (say) a steady pitch from the siren, whereas people on the street hear the "redshift" and "blushift". Why? Because the speed of sound is constant in air for both frames.

??? The point being??? Of course, theoretical physicists can be empiricists, this is simply a particular philosophy of science.
No. All of scientific theory is offered in explanation of empirical results. You are therefore wrong in differentiating "empiricists" and "theoreticians". If a scientist happens to be spending all of her time in a lab while her coworker is spending all of his time reading and writing, it makes no difference. They are working on the same kind of problems: data says this. What does it mean?

The subdivision between experimenters and theoreticians was not that strong at that time than today. None of this has any connection to the fact that Maxwell has developed ether theory.
No, Maxwell did not develop any aether theory. He worried that the old superstition he had been steeped in was shaken by the empirical results. And he had no idea how to explain radiation other than it had been superstitiously believed, as transport via luminiferous aether. As a result he once speculated about the current superstition of his day (perfectly elastic zero density fluid) and updated it with one requirement: filled with magnetic vortices (by that time the word "molecule" was in vogue, the way "quantum" gets bandied about today). But Maxwell's biggest contribution to science is comparable to Einstein's: he integrated the findings of his peers ("standing on the shoulders of giants") the way Einstein did.

To invoke Maxwell as an "authority" for the existence of aether (which this smacks of) is to drag science back into the Medieval period, to reinstate alchemy, and to glorify the inquisition that put Galileo under house arrest.

There was no need for an ether wind, except in your phantasy.
You are an imposter. The search was for "the luminiferous aether" which would have been "blowing like a wind" (indeed there is a solar wind) as the Earth moved.
And when the ether wind was disproved, some old ether theories were dead, and a better one was found, the Lorentz ether.
Not even close. Lorentz took on the formidable task that Einstein would later complete (integrating the results of others) and in the process he inserted electromagnetics into the aether superstition a little better than Maxwell had done. Other than that, his need for doing this is immaterial and it has no value whatsoever in establishing the thing you are trying to insinuate into this thread.

Recommendation: If you are not sure, don't say "wrong". The Maxwell equations for electromagnetism,
Busted: the word is "electromagnetics". Hence I said "imposter".

which are used even today,
oh . . . my . . . gawd.

are Lorentz invariant.
Ha ha ha. I'd love to see you explain what that means to you.

That this Lorentz invariance has been found only later
LOL

does not change the fact that these equations were Lorentz invariant already before this was observed.
Utter nonsense. Imposter.

As I have said, feel free to ignore my posts.
Yes I though I put you on ignore already. Roger that.

It may be not that stupid for laymen to simply rely on mainstream textbooks
Ah I see. The way numbskulls rely on superstitions they soaked up from medieval lore associated with the Bible. Roger that too.

Of course standard textbooks (used in accredited colleges and universities of Math & the sciences) rule, whereas the other stuff drools. And already you are slobbering on the keyboard.

and to ignore any alternatives without even taking a look at them.
No, the stupid crap that pretends to be science, but is actually parading as crypto-Creationism (thanks rpenner for reviving that term) just plain sucks. Pushing the ignore button any minute now.

"People interested in this subject" of course includes scientists too.
Which excludes you, thankfully.

The mainstream scientists reject the Lorentz ether, for metaphysical reasons, but usually they know that the Lorentz ether is not falsified by MMX and makes the same predictions as SR.
Stupid is as stupid does. Other than the Creationists trying to insinuate God into threads like this no one else gives a damn about aether. Interest and/or belief in the superstition became moot after the luminiferous wind was disproven. The other nails in the coffin were the "theory of (almost) everything" that became known as Maxwell's equations, and then the fatal blow was relativity.

If there is something completely wrong, present the arguments why.
Ok. You are propounding junk science in a science thread. QED.

It is one thing to say that you don't know the Lorentz ether,
I know it well. As I said, it is dead. (And will not rise on the third day no matter how hard you try).

and, given that the mainstream does not support this theory,
Wrong. "Mainstream" does not mean "all educated people". Classic screed, imposter.

will ignore it (a reasonable reaction for a layman), and a different one to claim that it is wrong.
As I said, no one gives a damn about aether except the worse, stupidest, most dishonest Creationists, and their political cohorts.

The clocks do not have to care about any frames, they move following their trajectory, and you can use whatever frame (system of coordinates) you like to describe all clocks all the time.
More nonsense.

The formula for the time shown by a clock is $$\tau = \int \sqrt{1-v(t)^2/c^2} dt$$ in any inertial system of coordinates,
LOL. I'd love to see the schematic diagram for this clock.

for a clock moving with velocity v(t).
And that's to differentiate it with clocks moving at v(x), or some other way they can move? Nice little scam you are running here. Obviously you are in denial of modern physics. You need to take that crap to the lower threads. Begone Satan!

And this $$\tau$$ is named proper time.
Ah yes. The name game.

If there is gravity, the formula for proper time becomes different and depends on the gravitational field too,
But since you are an imposter, you don't understand what that means. You don't understand that there is no change in frame unless something (like a clock or an observer watching that clock) crosses a gradient. Go back to school, stop pretending to be a published expert in physics, and may you spend a highly dilated time in Purgatory for all your violations of the Eighth Commandment. (I think the real lawmaker that refers to, Hammurabi, had a law number 723 or something which pulled out all your hair plus at least one canine for posing as a person with an education, esp. if it went to the benefit of Big Oil (which of course was what Mesopotamia was all about . . . I mean it was all about the oil . . . )

Liar.

$$\tau = \int \sqrt{g_{mn}(x,t) dx^m(t) dx^n(t)}$$.
I am certain we have met before. The Hydra has so many heads.
 
My statement was correct for SR as well as GR. If two clocks follow different trajectories, their showings will be identical only by numerical accidents,
Good thing the ambulance drivers all have degrees in the physical and applied sciences. Oh look: this guy has a "do not resuscitate" order on him!

or because relativistic effects are simply too small so that $$\tau = \int dt$$ is a sufficiently accurate approximation for above clocks.
*yawn*

I make no complaints, and I have never said that Einstein's 1905 paper was not fine.
Except for everything posted above, which is in denial of relativity and the death of aether, among other things.

Feel free to talk about videos. I'm interested in science.
Correction. You are interested in quashing modern physics, villifying the many great minds that are throwing your superstitions back in your face, and trying to recruit gullible followers. Scammer.

The experimental data require no nontrivial topologies and a single global harmonic system of coordinates is sufficient to describe what we have observed up to now.
Pure meaningless word salad, utterly bogus tripe. Imposter.

So you can use the standard GR math as well as GR in harmonic coordinates as preferred. The data do not make any requirements.
Or: you can go back to school, study, pass the exams, do the labs, projects and research papers, and graduate with a little bit of actual working knowledge about this subject. Or: stay as you are, and maybe the Koch Brothers will give you a promotion.

The word "frame" can, in principle, used to describe also some curved systems of coordinates, but what is usually meant with "frame" in SR talk is an inertial frame.
*yawn* Get thee to a nunnery (even they have adult education programs.)

And in any inertial frame light (in vacuum) follows straight lines, always.
Boys, give this man a cigar.

And different systems of coordinates can be used in Newtonian mechanics too, and the formulas in such curved coordinates will look quite different in NT too.
Oh no you don't. I want my Newtonian physics in harmonic coordinates.


This is simply a standard mathematical technique, which has nothing to do with physics.
Of course not! Everyone knows that F = ma is just mainstream screed! It should be F(t) = ma(t) for one thing! And for another, it has nothing whatsoever to do with physics! After all it's math!

Hammurabi calls up St Peter on his wireless sundial and imposes another 10 Taus of dilated purgatory time, for "lies the cheat the liars of the ability to coin worse lies".

It may be approximately correct, but is not perfectly correct. Of course, the error will be in most cases smaller in magnitude than observable. But there will be an error. Every stone lying around creates its own gravitational field, which everybody will ignore, but it will distort the results and destroy your perfection.
That's right folks, you heard that one right here, at SciForums!

If you think something is wrong, don't use paddoboy-like accusations, but present arguments.
I think you are left to say that because everyone else must already have you on ignore. Ok paddo, it's up to you now, I am pulling the plug on this one. Bwaa ha ha yek yek yek.

http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0205035 links to http://arxiv.org/pdf/gr-qc/0205035.pdf (upper right corner, download: PDF) which works nicely, as usual, for free. Same for
http://arxiv.org/abs/1409.7812 and http://arxiv.org/pdf/1409.7812v1.pdf
Oh Ok now I see the paper. Not sure what went wrong. Probly my parental controls engaged.

Whoa dude that paper reeks. I would love to investigate further, as I can't believe any bona fide journal would publish it. Of course by now, I am probably infected with a Trojan horse of some kind.

I have not claimed it has been cited, and do not expect it will be cited during the next years.

Ok well maybe you will get 3 Taus off for this admission. But sorry, you just admitted to being a fraud.

One first has to wait until the failure of string theory becomes so obvious that it will be given up, and people really start to search for alternatives.
Ah so now the venom for Brian Greene finally is exposed. He is obstructing your place in science as genius! Bwaa ha ha ha ha.

The link you have found was, of course, to a paywall version.
Now I am pretty sure the pirates own my boot loader. Because I would swear I followed the URL you originally posted. Damn!

This is standard in modern physics.
. . . said the scammer who never took any physics.

The journals scam by requiring phantasy prices for the articles,
OMGawd! Not a conspiracy theorist too!

but there is the preprint server arxiv.org, and the physicists put their preprints on this server for free.
And the scammers too QED.

And if it is published, one puts the text which is published as the actual version to the preprint server and adds a reference. This is how physicists handle the copyright scam of the journals. The published version and the version on the preprint server are usually slightly different in the presentation, but the text is usually the same.
Straight up prison talk.

If he would refuse from his polemics, he would be a very valuable contributor.
If all the superstitious cranks would confine themselves to the lower thread, paddo would not be wielding the rolling pin. Begone Satan!

*click*
 
No, aether is an ancient concept. Further, the superstition was disproved for the reason you state above. The constancy of c forbids any medium, aether or otherwise.
Completely wrong, and without any justification. Sound waves in a medium have velocities which do not depend on velocities of the cause. This is a characteristic property which sound waves share with light, and this property was the main argument in favour of an ether. Ancients concepts of the Old Greeks may have given the name, but are otherwise irrelevant.
No. All of scientific theory is offered in explanation of empirical results. You are therefore wrong in differentiating "empiricists" and "theoreticians". If a scientist happens to be spending all of her time in a lab while her coworker is spending all of his time reading and writing, it makes no difference. They are working on the same kind of problems: data says this. What does it mean?
You have obviously no idea of the meaning of the word "empiricism". This is a particular philosophy of science, a wrong one, which today nobody takes seriously because modern Popperian philosophy of science is much better.

I would recommend you to read Popper.
To invoke Maxwell as an "authority" for the existence of aether (which this smacks of) is to drag science back into the Medieval period, to reinstate alchemy, and to glorify the inquisition that put Galileo under house arrest.
Your rewriting of what Maxwell has done, together with this accusation, was funny, it remembers me how the German communist propagandist Karl Eduard von Schnitzler has "disproved" Western media by translating what they have said into communist jargon.
Busted: the word is "electromagnetics".
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electromagnetism
LOL. I'd love to see the schematic diagram for this clock.
This "LOL" in response to the elementary standard formula $$\tau=\int \sqrt{1-v(t)^2/c^2}dt$$ for proper time simply shows that you have not even a basic education in SR.

This, combined with the uncivilized behaviour, makes a continuation of the conversation meaningless.

Sorry, paddoboy, I have to ask you for excuse because I have considered him to be more civilized than you. Forgive me.
 
Units on the left are energy (joules) and on the right it's mass and velocity squared. Nothing at all like you cast it.


OK


Ok but you are oversimplifying (see below).


Yeah, but c is not in that measurement. Time is. And time is not invariant; it's relative. Hence, the standards expert will understand that she has to calibrate; she needs to know at what altitude 1 second was defined in your oversimplification above. In retrospect she will either use a time standard, calibrated for altitude, or self-calibrating, or she simply won't care, since the error will probably be beyond her practical needs.


That would be before Galileo (or earlier) or else before Fitzeau (1850s) if you are talking about early references to special relativity.


Of course, that makes no difference since the measurement requires measuring time, not c, as I stated above.


This may be the most accurate thing you have posted so far.


Get off the gas. Besides, the point is moot as explained above.


A veritable plethora. But irrelevant.


Did you calibrate for your altitude? Oh yeah, the cable you use for cal stretches and contracts at different altitudes, so it all works out fine, doesn't it. Not sure about the rest of the terminations in the cal kit though . . . :rolleyes: Man, I'm really not sure how that works with crystal standards, though . . . seems like it should be OK, but I think more test data is needed here just to be sure . . .


Ha ha ha. You really are full of it.

Yeah, I understand the scam now, so I won't be feeding the trolls anymore. It's pretty obvious neither of you want to discuss the topic. My bad. (Ignore)
Units on the left are energy (joules) and on the right it's mass and velocity squared. Nothing at all like you cast it.


OK


Ok but you are oversimplifying (see below).


Yeah, but c is not in that measurement. Time is. And time is not invariant; it's relative. Hence, the standards expert will understand that she has to calibrate; she needs to know at what altitude 1 second was defined in your oversimplification above. In retrospect she will either use a time standard, calibrated for altitude, or self-calibrating, or she simply won't care, since the error will probably be beyond her practical needs.


That would be before Galileo (or earlier) or else before Fitzeau (1850s) if you are talking about early references to special relativity.


Of course, that makes no difference since the measurement requires measuring time, not c, as I stated above.


This may be the most accurate thing you have posted so far.


Get off the gas. Besides, the point is moot as explained above.


A veritable plethora. But irrelevant.


Did you calibrate for your altitude? Oh yeah, the cable you use for cal stretches and contracts at different altitudes, so it all works out fine, doesn't it. Not sure about the rest of the terminations in the cal kit though . . . :rolleyes: Man, I'm really not sure how that works with crystal standards, though . . . seems like it should be OK, but I think more test data is needed here just to be sure . . .


Ha ha ha. You really are full of it.

Yeah, I understand the scam now, so I won't be feeding the trolls anymore. It's pretty obvious neither of you want to discuss the topic. My bad. (Ignore)
It's sad. It seems that it's common amoungst humans to prefer 'being right' over intellectual honesty. Logic says that those that behave that way will have a very serious learning disability. Those two are following that path. Pretty much like every other crank.
 
The problem with ad hominem arguments is not that one should not make them (the things which one should not make are named defamations and lies), but that they have low value as arguments. That means, if I name an argument ad hominem, I say that your argument is a quite weak one.
As are yours.
Ignoring your usual lengthy rather evangelistic rants.......

I have a problem also with your otherwise quite aggressive style, but this is another question.)
Hypocrisy is most certainly one of your strong points. :rolleyes:
By the way, my paper has survived the first ten years nicely. Note the date of putting it to arxiv.org: http://arxiv.org/abs/gr-qc/0205035 Wed, 8 May 2002.
Survived????:D You mean linger, as do most records in such situations.
When your paper is cited in high places, or as any possible extension or solution to cosmological problems, give us a call.

Sorry, paddoboy, I have to ask you for excuse because I have considered him to be more civilized than you. Forgive me.


Your condescending sarcasm bears the mark of someone with no real credibility, or as we say in my country..."You are like the cocky on the biscuit tin: You ain't in it". :)
 
No, aether is an ancient concept. Further, the superstition was disproved for the reason you state above. The constancy of c forbids any medium, aether or otherwise.
Completely wrong, and without any justification.
No, you are completely wrong. And disingenuous, you fraud. The constancy of c in all reference frames forbids any medium whatsoever, since the velocity of the medium itself would necessarily add to the velocity of the observed wave. Instead, the wavelength is altered (spacetime is observed altered). This was why experiments like Fitzeau and Michelson-Moreley completely thrashed the superstition you are trying to resurrect here. Take this to the lower threads. There are numerous places for you to spout your ether mumbo jumbo.

You lose, scammer. There is no science in your junk paper. I seriously doubt that any credentialed reviewer has accepted it as legitimate.

This is a characteristic property which sound waves share with light,
Oh geez I just said that, except without the poorly framed speech. And since it is a property of wave transport (radiation) it absolutely nothing to do with the need for a medium. (Unless we start calling the vacuum a medium which is better and correct but tends to confuse the name for parameters associated with various materials [media], esp permittivity and permeability, and their various analogs in acoustics).

Oh, and one more thing: yes, you can measure the vclocity of the moving medium, such that it adds to the velocity of light. It's just that, c itself slows naturally in the media to begin with, so you have to factor this all in. Further, the scattering at the far end of the medium makes this a little messy (as in when it goes back to the velocity of light in air [or vacuum] ).

Again, for clarity, before you go off the chain again: the velocity of electromagnetic waves, in free space, is invariant in all frames.


and this property was the main argument in favour of an ether.
No it was not. Go learn Huygens' principle. He was not referring to anything he had in mind about acoustics. The more common idea was to reference waves in water, as on the shore. That's another reason the "aether" was sometimes called "a sea".

Ancients concepts of the Old Greeks may have given the name, but are otherwise irrelevant.
You are correct that aether is irrelevant (again, take it to the lower threads). But the fact that the word "aether" in ancient cosmology was the "stuff" that filled the sky between the earth and the moon is entirely relevant to correcting your belief that it was first used in connection with (whatever you said, something no longer important).

You have obviously no idea of the meaning of the word "empiricism".
You obviously have no idea of the meaning of "take it to the lower threads".

This is a particular philosophy of science, a wrong one, which today nobody takes seriously because modern Popperian philosophy of science is much better.
Well when you actually pass a science course (preferably dealing in electromagnetics / optics) then come back and we'll give you a chance to retract your crank anti-science rant.

I would recommend you to read Popper.
I will file that with all your other advice.

Your rewriting of what Maxwell has done, together with this accusation, was funny, it remembers me how the German communist propagandist Karl Eduard von Schnitzler has "disproved" Western media by translating what they have said into communist jargon.
I haven't written much about Maxwell. You tried to resurrect the tired argument that he is an authority upon which we should believe an aether exists. Talk about funny. And since you are a scammer, I am going to have to assume you are not even German (or Germanic or whatever this little charade is supposed to mean).

Don't rely on wiki - take the course, and come back and confess your sins.

This "LOL" in response to the elementary standard formula $$\tau=\int \sqrt{1-v(t)^2/c^2}dt$$ for proper time simply shows that you have not even a basic education in SR.
Ha ha ha. You are trying to cast proper time as the result of some relativistic observation. Further, you meant to write "elapsed time, in the inertial frame, as it relates to time in another frame" or something like that. It's a differential (Δτ) which makes this so silly. Compounding this is your earlier attack on math.

This, combined with the uncivilized behaviour, makes a continuation of the conversation meaningless.
That's why I am clicking you off. Bye. Take your crude barbarous abuses of math and science to the lower threads, where food fights are the mainstay.

Sorry, paddoboy, I have to ask you for excuse because I have considered him to be more civilized than you. Forgive me.
Well don't let decorum prevent you from admitting that you have no other purpose here than to inject Creationism into the thread.

This time I will get it done for sure: *click*
C ya wouldn't wanna B ya
 

You wrote very prolifically on this thread and on the other thread which was about mersini paper. You declared both Danshawen and Schemelzer what not, and condescendingly declared Paddoboy as amateur and you love him for his efforts, putting yourslef at higher pedestal .....Lets see where you are in the argument.

1. You wrongly persisted that direction plays no role in Time Dilation calculations, you refuted my +v and -v example with respect to third frame, you did not correct your position even after I gave you the link which details the transformation with arbitrary direction motion.

2. You raised doubts over the 'standard of length' as measured bringing in time dilation due to motion or due to Gravity. This means that you failed to appreciate the length contraction in case of relative motion time dilation, and you failed to appreciate the physics behind non-inertial frames.

3. You talk of ephemeral BH.....wow, you failed to recognise once inside EH, then the only way for BH to vanish is, Hawking Radiation which has time frame as high as you can imagine.

4. You came to know only yesterday, that BHs have no direct evidence? Its no sin, but where does it put you with such lengthy arguments on the subject.


5. On Laura paper, you talk of rebounce due to Nuclear Strong Force, while she talks of nothing like that. Her rebounce factor is due to Backreacting negative Hawking radiation.

You declared few as cranks but shared no knowledge.
 
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