It doesn't say internal waves. It says waves upon waves, which is simply the literary technique of repetition.
Waves topped by waves topped by clouds-- The same language in a succession can not be attributed to clouds if just before it is talking about 'many waves'- Clouds would be missed placed here.
Secondly please read the verse again: I'm providing translations found here:
http://www.usc.edu/schools/college/crcc/engagement/resources/texts/muslim/quran/024.qmt.html
024.040
YUSUFALI: Or (the Unbelievers' state) is like the
depths of darkness in a vast deep ocean, overwhelmed with billow topped by billow, topped by (dark) clouds:
depths of darkness, one above another: if a man stretches out his hands, he can hardly see it! for any to whom Allah giveth not light, there is no light!
PICKTHAL: Or as darkness on a vast, abysmal sea.
There covereth him a
wave, above which is a wave, above which is a cloud.
Layer upon layer of darkness. When he holdeth out his hand he scarce can see it. And he for whom Allah hath not appointed light, for him there is no light.
SHAKIR: Or like utter
darkness in the deep sea:
there covers it
a wave above which is another wave, above which is a cloud, (layers of)
utter darkness one above another; when he holds out his hand, he is almost unable to see it; and to whomsoever Allah does not give light, he has no light.
It refers to darkness at the depth of the sea- then to waves and then waves on top. It is illogical to first draw attention to the depth of something (to which the metaphor is for) but then follow it up with something that isn't found there at all- unless the following was at the depth to begin with to allow for smooth transition from depth to sky (cloud).
If the metaphor is related to darkness in the depth then to assume that the 'waves' referred to first are surface waves is quite illogical as the metaphor breaks apart if one does that. As supposedly the metaphor was that of the darkness in the depth of seas as told in the beginning.
And then you have to also consider the summation of the metaphor with layers of darkness 'one above another'. If the previously mentioned things were in layers- then to single out 'waves' as many (which makes clouds missed placed) would further make it illogical.
As the beginning refers to darkness in the depth. To explain that darkness it uses "waves topped by waves topped by clouds"... Sums it up as 'darkness above darkness'.
If waves is 1 thing (many waves)- that would be 1 layer- surface layer, clouds would be the other layer (sky).
But where is the darkness in the depth? Also to note is that 2 of translations say 'there'- referring to the depth where the 'waves' are or at least the first waves.. Coincidentally the verse gives examples where darkness can be found- waves (surface) and clouds (sky) but where is the example for the 'darkness' in the deep?
The logical conclusion is that that it works from depth to sky in a succession... waves (depth), wave on top (surface), clouds (sky). This answers why the attention to the depth was brought in the beginning of the metaphor and it gives logical succession. And it answers the 'layer of darkness' (summation of metaphor) at the end.
And again you still have to show that Arabs only held that the Quran had only the meaning they themselves held.
The point I'm making about the Greeks is that they revealed amazing scientific facts using nothing more than reason. Which is more than Mohamed has done, allegedly channeling God itself.
Greeks are a big group of people- they wrote many works of their philosophical discussion.. purpose of them being philosophical discussion regarding their surrounding..
The Quran is a single book purpose of which is not to to detail or try to explain how things work or are composed of- but a theological work which occasionally uses metaphors that help it achieve this goal.
That is like saying that a book of anatomy should contain information regarding how to pass Level 2 of Prince of Persia (a video game).
Peace be unto you
