Yes, of course it must be true that "prior" to the BB, if it is truly to be a timeless state, then that timelessness is instantaneous. This means that the universe both has always been, and also has a beginning. But, the problem with saying that a timeless (and therefore changeless) "prior" state existed without an actualizing agent is the problem of "how did the anomaly arise?" Even if, as Bohm proposes, a combination of suitable potentials may form an implication which may express itself in reality, some activity has to occur in order for that expression to take place, and if we're talking about a state of pure potential, no activity can take place except by an external agent. The only way around it is to suggest that the combination of potentials is itself an actualizing agent, in which case the presence of this combination, having always been present, implies that there never was a zero state condition to begin with, since the presence of the combination auto-actualizes from timeless instantaneity. But that begs the question too... from whence does such an implicate order arise? A zero state condition of pure, infinite potential implies latent reality. But if that's true, then all of reality has always existed in latent form. Where does the logic of the universe come from? You appear to be saying, "it just is," which is about as useful as saying "God just is," except that the position of an infinite intellect as the source of said logic is more coherent than its absence. It appears nonsensical to say that the universe has implicate order "just because."