wellwisher said:
Civilization and the invention of language
The emergence of language (I don't think that it was an invention exactly, it was more of an evolutionary development) probably dates back well before the time of anatomically modern Homo sapiens. It's probable that Homo erectus used spoken language of a sort, even if it was grammatically and conceptually simpler than language of today. Maybe even earlier hominids did too. My guess is that spoken language has been around for something like a million years.
Civilization, in the sense of life in large (tens of thousands of people) cities, first appeared about 3,500 BCE in Mesopotamia (Iraq). In other words, it's only a few thousand years old (about 5,500 before the present). Writing first seems to have appeared roughly contemporaneous with the cities and that's when history begins.
Smaller agricultural villages (not unlike southwestern American Indian pueblos), some the size of significant towns, trade among them and probably small kingdoms and confederations of various sorts, were already ancient by that time, dating back to the appearance of settled agriculture as far back as 7,000 BCE (9,000 BP). This increasingly settled but pre-literary and pre-urban 'neolithic period' shouldn't be sneered at. They developed agriculture, stock-raising, weaving and textiles, fired ceramics and even experimented with copper metallurgy. In some cases they had multistory houses with furniture and painted interiors where they created complex and sophisticated art and religious myths to go with it.
totally altered the external environment for the firmware, causing the firmware to get mutant.
I don't understand. Are you suggesting that some of the human instincts that gradually evolved in paleolithic hunting-and-gathering bands started to be disfunctional in urban environments? It's plausible, but we probably need examples.
What purge?
was implicit of the need to alter the external input so what was left was more natural. This can be done with a literal flood, or it can be done via the filters of the unconscious mind.
Again, I'm not sure I understand. Are you hypothesizing that early urban man longed for, perhaps without being consciously aware of it, an older nomadic pre-urban existence, wandering the earth and enticing nature to provide game and edible plants?
The idea has some plausibility. Even today there's still a widespread cultural idealization of nature untouched by man and the idea that civilization represents kind of a 'fall' from a primordial state of oneness with nature. The idea that this is some deep-rooted racial nostalgia for the old-stone-age is interesting, if not entirely convincing.
In symbolism, a flood would represent the unconscious mind gaining potential; mass psychosis that overwhelmed the conscious mind. The goal of the collective unconscious was to restore natural instinct, so civilization could progress properly. The two of each animals would represent restoring the natural instincts of the males and females.
You lost me there and it's the heart-and-soul of your thesis. Unconscious mind gaining potential? Mass psychosis? Overwhelming the conscious mind? A collective unconscious exists that has its own goals?
And there's the problem that if civilized life is fundamentally incompatible with natural instinct and caused the "firmware" get "mutant", then why would restoring natural instinct make civilization progress properly?
Finally, I'm still unclear on what these speculations have to do with flood-myths. Most of the flood myths in Arne's link aren't from large-scale urbanized literate cultures at all. Many seem to be from the last of the roughly neolithic small-agricultural-village cultures that fascinated 20th century anthropology (and sadly have largely diappeared today).