stateofmind,
Generally speaking, the question you're asking here is logically illegitimate.
Doreen's point here is to be well noted:
So, the answer to your question runs thusl:
A negative cannot be proven. This is because only [positive] assertions can be proven. However, the assertion of A, does imply its denial [ not-A, or, B say, in this case..], if it is indeed the case that A has a legitimate contrary.
So, typically, a negative can be 'proven', if and only if this negative is the logical contrary of a correlate positive that can be proven. This methodology is known as reductio ad absurdum.
See: RAA
And its root: Propositional Logic
This is a fairly decent exposition of PL for the layperson: Propositional logic
Generally speaking, the question you're asking here is logically illegitimate.
Doreen's point here is to be well noted:
Given that things that did not have evidence later did have evidence and are now considered true, I think it would be very odd to decide that everything is false unless it is proven true - or the weight of evidence indicates it is true.
So, the answer to your question runs thusl:
A negative cannot be proven. This is because only [positive] assertions can be proven. However, the assertion of A, does imply its denial [ not-A, or, B say, in this case..], if it is indeed the case that A has a legitimate contrary.
So, typically, a negative can be 'proven', if and only if this negative is the logical contrary of a correlate positive that can be proven. This methodology is known as reductio ad absurdum.
See: RAA
And its root: Propositional Logic
This is a fairly decent exposition of PL for the layperson: Propositional logic