Hi again, James. Yes, I feel this already has the makings of a valuable exchange too. For now I just want to focus on one part of your recent posts, perhaps the most important. That is, while intuitions might vary about truth or approximate truth, there is a class of statements or theories that can be ruled out immediately, not even candidates for truth or truth-likeness (those containing non-referring terms). See below.
Before doing so, though, I'd refer you back to my post #146 on page 8. The post evoked a hostile response, taking me quite by surprise. Evidently I was misunderstood, perhaps as suggesting that the "Santa Claus theory" was somehow worthy of scientific attention or on a par with the greatest physical theories. That wasn't it at all. What I
was trying to do -- as explicitly stated -- was to tweak intuitions on matters such as truth, understanding, explanation, and so on.
Now to business . . .
The history of science tends to suggest otherwise. While it is true that theories sometimes need to be thrown away completely, it is often the case that current theories are found to be correct in some appropriate approximation of a new and improved theory. We still guide our interplanetary spacecraft using Newton's law of gravity, because it works well enough, even though we have found that it's only an approximation of the "more correct" theory of General Relativity in an appropriate limit.
Newtonian gravity, to repeat an example, is highly confirmed. But we also know that it's false, in a technical sense. Or maybe it's mostly true. Or true in a lot of circumstances. Or true enough.
Here I think we need to be extremely careful about our wording. The class of statements/theories I alluded to the top are those containing "non-referring" terms. A non-referring term, as the name suggests, is one that refers to nothing, or stated more precisely, one that
fails to refer.
Now, to even stand a chance of saying something true, the subject term must refer. e.g.
"Donald Trump [insert predicate here]"
Since "Donald Trump" is a referring term, the statement yields a true or false value depending on what predicate is inserted, i.e., what property or properties we attribute to the jolly orange giant. There's at least a chance of saying something true, or approximately so. E.g.
"Donald Trump has 100 legs" vs "Donald Trump is former US president"
By contrast, when we're dealing with non-referring terms, there is no possibility of saying something true, approximately true, or anywhere near the truth. E.g.
"The fountain of youth is in Florida" vs "The fountain of youth is not in Florida"
Both are untrue. Nothing true can be predicated of a non-referring term (with the exception "The fountain of youth does not exist").
This was my main reason for invoking Santa Claus in post 146, not to ridicule dear old Isaac or Albert lol. Surely all agree that any statement or theory about Santa Claus is just plain untrue. Quoting yourself from above, and any predictive power that it may have notwithstanding, the Santa Claus theory is not "mostly true", or "true in a lot of circumstances", or "true enough". It's just untrue. Do you agree?
Yes, sometimes we "suspend the rules" if you like, perhaps in a trivia quiz, and assert that "Santa's head reindeer is named Rudolph" is true. We would immediately retract, however, if someone asked "Do you mean to tell me there
really is a dude called Santa Claus and that he
really . . . ". I trust you get the picture.
Add to this, I assume we agree that the amount of genuine understanding that Santa theory yields is zilch. It does no genuine explanatory work at all, despite what those in the grip of the theory might think. Any sense of understanding is wholly specious.
In a nutshell, then, nothing true can be said of non-existent entities; nothing true can be predicated of a non-referring term (duly noting one exception). They explain nothing and they yield no genuine understanding whatsoever.
How does this apply to scientific theories? Well, in exactly the same way. Nothing true can be predicated of phlogiston, and presumably, inasmuch as it doesn't exist, most of us would agree that phlogiston (theory) explains precisely nothing. Typically, no one objects to any of this. Do you?
Things tend to get a bit more heated when we apply the same treatment to Newtonian theory. But if we take Einstein seriously, then the core posits of Newtonian theory (absolute space, absolute time, attractive gravitational force, etc.), like Santa Claus,
do not exist. And vice versa, for that matter. On pain of inconsistency and contradiction, you can't have one foot in a Newtonian universe and the other in an Einsteinian universe.
In other words, then, you can't nail your colors to both masts at once. If we take both men
literally (as opposed an instrumentalist stance), allegiance to one entails a complete disavowal to the other of any truth, approximate truth, "truth in a lot of circumstances", explanatory power, or genuine understanding yielded.
Similar considerations apply to the commonly heard claim that Einstein's theory "reduces" to Newton's (in cases of low gravity, low velocity, etc.), or as you put it, the latter "approximates" the former.
I've no objection at all to the claim that the
predictions of Einstein's theory "reduce to" or "approximate" those of Newton's. And if you take a purely instrumentalist view of matter -- i.e. the two men's claims about reality are not to be taken literally -- you may sleep well. There's nothing more to worry you. Neither theory makes any truth claims, neither is trying to explain anything, neither is even attempting to describe what the universe is like, and neither brings any understanding of underlying causes and mechanisms.
By contrast, on a realist view with all the baggage that carries (explanation, understanding, etc.) it makes little sense to speak of one theory reducing to, or approximating, the other. Suppose we start near a black hole or something -- an "extreme" circumstance -- where the two theories yield wildly divergent predictions, then fly gradually back to Kansas where the respective predictions of the two theories are virtually indistinguishable, would anyone wish to claim that the 4-d spacetime manifold gradually disentangles itself into a Newtonian absolute space and absolute time that are independent of one another? Would anyone wish to claim that gravity, which was the curvature of spacetime in the vicinity of the black hole, proceeds to undergo some kind of identity crisis, gradually reverting to a good old fashioned Newtonian attractive force?
In an Einsteinian universe,
there is no such thing as an attractive force, absolute space, and absolute time --
anywhere! -- and any assumption that Einstein's theory is true carries with it the implication that Newton's theory is not true, not "mostly true", not "true in a lot of circumstances", and not even "true enough" . . .
. . . unless of course you're willing to extend the same courtesy to Santa Claus theory.
Does, for example, the "Mummy and Daddy Do It" theory gradually reduce to the Santa Claus theory as we fly from India, where its predictions are wildly inaccurate, to Kansas where it "works" pretty well? Is it "mostly true", "true in a lot of circumstances", or "true enough"?
What do you say, James?
Thanks again for a thought provoking exchange. I may reply to other parts of your recent posts later, time permitting.