That statement assumes the need for persistence of the individuated personal identity. However subjective continuity seems not to require persistence, and should not be equated with it.For an afterlife to occur, some part of our identity has to be immortal, to carry onto a next life.
Then a matter of whether or not a particular individual is satisfied with the possibility of this generic subjectivity's continuance, as a "kind of" globally available principle still being indulged in by scattered organisms that evolve any "equipment organization" necessary to partake in it. People who have suffered something bordering on total amnesia, and re-acquired a new personality / life over time again, might appreciate this better than any standard identifyings of "who I am" with either one's unique brain memories or body history (though the latter would still get to be retained by such cases of deep memory loss).[*]The content of subjective experience is unique; however subjectivity itself is not. This enabling, dynamic thalamocortical state is universal, as any other common natural process is universal.
Atheism is a inherent wickedness. You either are right and you go to the dirt, or you are wrong wrong wrong and to hell for ya! What is a non-believer?
All that atheists attest to is that there is no God. There's no atheist conception of afterlife, because atheists don't really have a concept of anything exclusively, atheism is not a belief in things, but a disbelief in God (or, you could say belief that there is no God). But I guess you could say that atheist's beliefs, are the negation of all the theistic religion's beliefs.
And I don't think there CAN be an atheist view of an afterlife. For an afterlife to occur, some part of our identity has to be immortal, to carry onto a next life. It wouldn't be matter, because our bodies decay and degrade. It'd have to be some sort of spirit or soul, and to entertain that thought seems more religious than atheistic.
Thank you for considering the concept's reasoning and application.Then a matter of whether or not a particular individual is satisfied with the possibility of this generic subjectivity's continuance, as a "kind of" globally available principle still being indulged in by scattered organisms that evolve any "equipment organization" necessary to partake in it.
That statement assumes the need for persistence of the individuated personal identity. However subjective continuity seems not to require persistence, and should not be equated with it.
If the requirement of persistence is dropped - if mortality is granted - the conditions of subjective continuity remain, independently, per propositions (4.)-(6.) in the previous post. Hence the concept of 'existential passage' and its equivalents.
The reasoning of existential passage honors Occam's Razor, and has precedent in the Hellenistic philosophical tradition. It's something to be aware of, if only as an exception to the rule - or rather, exception to common assumptions - about afterlife faith and reason.
I believe in atheistic reincarnation, but it's the body that's immortal, not the spirit. The body never disappears, it just changes form.
Which then go into other organizations of matter we call people. The patterns echo through time while the raw materials stays more or less the same.I don't really see what this has to do with subjectivity. Are you thinking along the lines of Jungian theory of passing on a collective consciousness or something. I feel like with the "afterlife", that would require us (our own personal identity) to live it. In any other case, then it wouldn't be OUR afterlife.
Well I'd agree that the body is immortal, that would be like agreeing that matter is indivisible. But I don't think that would be reincarnation of yourself, just of basic building blocks of matter.
Existential passage (or Clark's generic subjective continuity) is not a Jungian concept, no. And nothing material or immaterial is posited as passing between the subjective transitions. As in essay Ch. 9: "No 'thing' is imagined to have transferred any memory, or personality, or soul, or any psychic entity whatsoever from Nicos to Thanos."Are you thinking along the lines of Jungian theory of passing on a collective consciousness or something. I feel like with the "afterlife", that would require us (our own personal identity) to live it. In any other case, then it wouldn't be OUR afterlife.
P.S. In this also existential passage reasoning has precedent. The Druze community in Lebanon underwent an investigation of its doctrines and practices back in the 1950's. The Druze were judged to be Muslims in good standing - as of course anyone who has broken bread with them can readily believe....As you know, the Fifth Ecumenical Council formally banned Origen's teachings on the pre-existence of the soul. This has widely been interpreted as the penultimate Catholic injunction against reincarnation.
That injunction does not apply to Metaphysics by Default. This new transmigration philosophy does not posit the pre-existence of the soul. It works within the parameters of non-reductive physicalism. Man is completely mortal: this deduction leaves no room for pre-existence. As a result, Catholic philosophers may entertain this particular transmigration philosophy without fear of the Fifth Ecumenical Council's anathema pronouncement.
- This philosophy is not anathema.
...Pope John Paul II goes farther. In Fides et Ratio he sets down three requirements which a philosophy must satisfy if it is to be consonant with the word of God.
Quoting:
- "To be consonant with the word of God, philosophy needs first of all to recover its sapiential dimension as a search for the ultimate and overarching meaning of life." - Section 81.
Metaphysics by Default provides a reasoned hope of future life. Such a forward-looking vision is vital to our search for life's meaning. Life gains meaning when we participate in the future.
- "This prompts a second requirement: that philosophy verify the human capacity to know the truth, to come to a knowledge which can reach objective truth..." - Section 82.
Metaphysics by Default is based upon objective truth, and it has attained what I judge a greater objective truth.
- "The two requirements already stipulated imply a third: the need for a philosophy of genuinely metaphysical range, capable, that is, of transcending empirical data in order to attain something absolute, ultimate and foundational in its search for truth." - Section 83.
Metaphysics by Default is indeed a metaphysical philosophy; not merely in name, but in actuality. The primary subject matter of this philosophy is our ontological relation to other lives. This is a foundational concern.
Pope John Paul II has set down three requirements. Metaphysics by Default satisfies all three. By Pope John Paul II's authoritative standard, Metaphysics by Default is consonant with the word of God...
sarkus said:We don't have the experience of [deep dreamless sleep]. We have an experience of falling asleep and then of waking up. The gap between the two is inferred from recollection of memories of the time before and comparison to the time after.
lightgigantic said:we do.
If we didn't we wouldn't be discussing it...
wynn said:It is a cultural difference, because it is not everywhere that unconsciousness is defined as an "absence of all experience."
Hi Cyperium.Hi, wstewart, I have a question for you, what do you think is the requirement for the Nicos subjective to pass specifically to Thanos? In the case of Old Paul and New Paul the requirement seem to be that the brain has the same structure (it is the same brain after all, with minor modifications), however, how much alike would Thanos brain need to be in order to be the brain most fit for Nicos subjective?
As regards objective and subjective time:Also, what does order has to do with anything? When Thanos passes away, there is no subjective (it is gone, which is required for the argument), if there is no subjective then there is no subjective time (no time in which the subjective is present), hence why should there be a requirement that Thanos must be objectively in a time later than Nicos?
That depends basically if the subject is unique, cause if he is unique then something must make that subject unique, in other words, it has to have some property (or properties) that makes that subject be in that particular body instead of any other body. After recovery, one could either say that it is the same subject, or a different subject, depending solely on if he continues to feel existence, and it does not depend on if he has the same identity or can even identify that he has been in that body previously.Hi Cyperium.
Thinking first of Old and New Paul:
With Old Paul the structure is not just modified, but functionally disrupted to the point at which subjectivity is ended and episodic memory is lost. From that time to the time of recovery, subjectivity and more generally personal identity do not persist in the structure.
In your view the common structure is vital. But what would be the relevance of that structure to the unfelt time-gap, during that time when the structure lacks the function required to close the gap?
Asking another way: Must Nature prevent closure of the unfelt time-gap until such time as that particular structure recovers its function? If so, how, or why?
The reason I think otherwise is that subjective nothing and objective nothing are the same thing. If you are nothing, then time has no relevance to you, it would be as if you never existed (as it was before you were born). How can time pass in nothing? There is no object in subjective nothing. That is the part that I have most difficulty understanding. There can be no time and no world in nothing, even if it is subjective nothing. To think otherwise would sustain the thought that the subject somehow exist in time and the universe even when we by definition say that it doesn't exist. I mean, how is subjective nothing before you were born different from subjective nothing after you died? If it is different in any way then it isn't nothing, as it must then have properties (like time, or at least something that goes along with time). Also, how is subjective nothing different from objective nothing? Nothing has no properties and nothing to differ it.As regards objective and subjective time:
James' time-gap, whether felt or unfelt, ends at a time that is objectively later than the start. True, there's no subjective experience of time in an unfelt time-gap, but that doesn't alter objective time. Objectively, when conditions for gap closure are first met, one expects the gap to close. There is no obvious reason to expect otherwise, and I haven't seen substantial argument against that expectation.
Of course the "conditions for closure" are not perfectly understood, and certainly open to question and argument, as above.