Where in Websters does it say anything about soft in relation to economics? Oh that is right, it doesn't. That is you trying to modify reality to conform to your political point of view. Michael you are fond of accusing others who disagree with you that they are somehow deluded. But they are not the ones who need to modify reality in order to make room for their point of view - too make sense of the world. I would suggest to you that truth should not require reality modification.
Just why do you suppose Websters uses the adjective "social" to describe the kind of "Science" economists perform?
phys·ics
n.
1.
The science of matter and energy....
bi·ol·o·gy
n.
1.
The science of life and of living organisms,....
chem·is·try
n.
1.
The science of the composition, structure, properties, and reactions of matter,.....
psy·chol·o·gy
n.
1. The science that deals with mental processes and behavior....
so·ci·ol·o·gy
n.
1.
The study of human social behavior, especially the study of the origins, organization, institutions, and development of human society.
NOTE: Sociology is the
study of...
NOTE #2: Economics is a discipline of sociology. The
social science could be misleading. We'll get to that in a minute. So, why the
social science whereas physics, chemistry, biology, psychology are all just Science? Well, it's because some
microeconomic paradigms can be studied using the Scientific Method whereas macroeconomic can
NOT be studied using the Scientific Method.
Let's just make sure that is clear. MACROECONOMICS (the thing most laypeople think of when they hear the word "Economics") can NOT be studied through application of the Scientific Method and thus is NOT a "science". At best it's an inductive process modeling past events. While that process may contain pretty numbers and squiggles and maybe the occasional misleading graph, it's NOT the Scientific Process which is DEDUCTIVE. It's not science.
Clear now, good!
Why are you so pessimistic , about the possibilty of a theory ; which can define money-flow in the economy .
Well, I suppose it's because you're being very vague. Take your use of the word "economy" - this really doesn't explain anything about what you plan to study not how V = IR is related to it. What's best in these situations is to write the hypothesis you plan to test and define the variables as well as describe the experiment and data gathering process. Finally, the statistics that will be used to measure significance.
Once that's been repeated enough times then you could think about whether V = IR is relevant.
Do you perhaps "get a kick" out of believing archeologists, anthropologists, historians, animal behavioralists, mathmaticians and others are "not scientists?" What is to be gained by changing the definition of "scientist" as you seem intent to do?:shrug:
You and Joe seem to have a very lay understanding of the word "science".
Archeologists may or may not be "scientists" as in they may or may not apply the Scientific Method in the study of archeology. Which is why we also have the term "Experts" or even better "Archeologists" (which I think nicely sums up their title, if one need be given a professional moniker
There's nothing "wrong" with inductive study. Most things are examined and analyzed inductively. That's not applying the Scientific Method though. Which is deductive.
I don't see what the problem is? :shrug: It's really about whether the process of data gathering followed a deductive Scientific Method or not. We could open that other thread you know

It's almost as if the word "science" is being confused with the words
worthwhile,
valid,
legitimate, etc.... science is only a process.