Could it be because you are not on the receiving end of it, so you do not notice it?
Already illustrated scenarios in which I've been "splained" to, and never felt the need to put a gender on it. It's a sexist term, really.
Let's say you are at a conference and you see one speaker, let us assume she is a woman, and you know she is an expert in her field. Now, let's assume you approach her after her speech and decide to explain something within her field of expertise to her, or she is talking to you and you cut her off or talk at her loudly to explain her field of expertise.
Unless I'm doing it
because she's a woman or because of some presumed sense of superiority, there's no reason for the term. Your example relies on the assumption that she knows her own field perfectly and that I can have nothing to offer, which occurs in no field that I know. My field, for example, is vast and contains hundreds of thousands of workers, each of which has a different array of practical knowledge even on the selfsame subject. Am I commenting on her paper particularly? Is it on her subjects? How exactly can peer review work now, if males commenting on a manuscript submitted by a female can be dismissed as "mansplaining"? I've received innumerable and unbelievable comments on articles I've submitted, some of which displayed stunning ignorance. Can I dismiss some of these on their gender? Could I do it if I were female? Can my female grad students dismiss these reviews? Why or why not? How does this differ from the above?
Here's an example that illustrates the problems with your synthesis as it concerns the multifarious array of transmitted knowledge that actually came up recently: a professor was telling me about her animal populations. I've seen some of her presentations and I knew that her tests had failed to achieve statistical significance. I also knew, since she was telling me at that moment, that she was using animals from a stock that had actually apparently been contaminated by another strain of the same species, which resulted in a bit of a kerfuffle within various communities, and about which I knew, having known some of the major players. I suggested a specific statistical solution she might want to investigate that might take advantage of this potential problem. Now: I'm a geneticist. She's from a different discipline in biology. Had I the right to tell her about this issue? It reaches into her discipline and area of expertise, in which I am no expert. Was I "mansplaining"?
And moreover it has to be said that your conclusion is that I can have no useful information to impart because I am male. This is outrageous. People of the same sex as the example above are apparently free to condescend or to not. If I do it - whether out of ignorance or ill will - apparently this begins to approach a hate crime. How is this a reasoned result?
The central word in all this is
presumption. How do you know the scope of the other's knowledge? One can't, without information. How would one find this out?
Condesenscion is a better term that already exists and can be universally applied without the reference of an intersectional power structure. Calling the basis for something up front is impossible without further information. Surely there are indeed nefarious actors who do look down on women or other members of various groups for reasons of prejudice, but such a term can also be used to deny the intellectual, political and social agency of others. Your example - and the entire topic - is indexed to sex. Why this differentiation as opposed to others? My parents and elders talked down to me when I was younger. I bridled under it, yet lived; and it would be fair to say that I carried a certain degree of resentment. But this was based on longstanding patterns. How could I relate such a pattern to another with complete fidelity? How could they judge on my issue in my place?
But beyond all this, the issue of contention is usage. Who is using this possibly weaponized term, and to what end? Are they expert in its usage? Are they familiar with the situations in which they comment on to the extent that they can reliably use this term? Who is rating them on their competence, and when? It's an argument terminator and used in precisely the same way: and as such, it's not intellectually defensible.
Another way it can happen is if you decide to explain something to her, uninvited and where you have no business explaining it to her, because you have no idea whether she knows or not. The flowchart is very good at explaining it.
The flowchart image has failed, but probably references the above dynamic. You're inferring that which cannot be inferred without
solid reasons for doing so, which requires extensive background information on the protagonists and/or the subjects. How can the term 'mansplaining' then be used conventionally?
Why do you feel the need to inform a woman about pregnancy at first sight, without an invitation from her for you to inform her about pregnancy? Are you her doctor or treating physician?
Of course. Why would you possibly assume I would 'accost' a woman?:
No, we do not carry stickers on our faces. But aside from that, what gives you the right to accost a pregnant woman, for example, to inform her about pregnancy when you are not her treating doctor or midwife? Why do you think you should offer your opinion or inform her about pregnancy when she has not asked you to?
Similarly here:
And what if she is in a lab and she has not asked for your suggestions? Are you her teacher? Professor? Are you in a teaching position where you role in that lab is to teach students? I mean, you say you have never seen it come up, but you just gave an example of how you could be mansplaining... Ironic, isn't it?
No, not in the slightest. For starters, I'm a biology professor and so obviously my role is indeed to teach students. Prior to this, I taught students of both sexes - but largely female, actually - in laboratory and lecture sessions in a variety of courses. This is a clearly defined role of superiority; ergo, I teach them, and they are taught. This is the nature of instructional organisation. But let's go with your best case hypothetical scenario here:
And what if she is in a lab and she has not asked for your suggestions?
Let's say in this event that I am neither
her instructor specifically - and it is not clear why her sex is relevant in such a scenario; would it be different somehow if the student in question were male? - nor even an instructor at all. The offering of advice then falls into one of several possible categories: i) useful or kindly advice. It may well be that I have some experience she lacks - perhaps I performed a particular dissection or technique in some other class in a different college - and I wish to help. ii) Outright misogyny. Perhaps I feel that, as a female, she is unable or unqualified to perform this particular technique. iii) Other social interaction: maybe I'm trying to find an angle to invite her for coffee, or I think she might know my cousin. I'm less certain about iii) there, but (presumably) there are other impulses or driving factors that create male-female, or male-male, or female-female interaction.
The problematic part of the entire thing, however, is this presumption of misogyny based on sex. Are the above scenarios - aside from certain biological impossibilities of the first one - equally potentially offensive if the subject (S) is male and the protagonist (P) female? Or if S is female and P female? Or male and male? Female and transgendered? Male and queer? Queer and transgendered? If not, why not? The entire spectrum falls under the term, as above,
condesenscion. My intentions cannot be known, unless I have chosen to wear my top hat, tuxedo and waxed moustache that day.
But central to all the above hypothetical scenarios is
presumption. You may presume I have no special knowledge to impart. I may presume the subject does not have this special knowledge. In neither circumstance can this be known. She, as I've said already, carries no special badge to advertise her own expertise. Neither do I. Neither can the intentions of this interaction be interpreted by either party, barring special circumstances. To return to the above first example: what if I'm a new attending or GP and she's a obstetrics MD? Is her appointment purely for the reasons of satisfying insurance policy demands? How would such information end up on her chart? Some hospitals don't collect this. Is it then "mansplaining"? Or is it better in such an instance to say that there has simply been a miscommunication? Your use of "accosting" above suggests a certain hostility on this subject. Are you then a fair observer in such a situation? How do I know this?
You really should read up on it. Please.
Please don't make presumptions to the state of my knowledge or experience so far as to fall into the practice of femsplaining, please. It's very offensive of you to assume I've never been exposed to this concept just because I'm male. Thanks.