Apologies in advance if this isn't the right place for this kind of conversation, but this subforum seems to have tolerated sexuality-centered threads before, so I thought it'd be alright. Although this might be a comparatively frivolous matter to discuss, I've had it stuck in my brain for a while and wanted to find an ethics-centered forum like this where I could get some fresh perspectives on it.
So what I've been mulling over is this: if person A publishes a completely anonymous account of their sexual experiences with person B, likewise anonymous, but doesn't ask for B's consent before doing so, can that be considered to constitute a violation of B's sexual privacy? And, if person C then masturbates to said story, can C then be considered to have participated in some kind of indirect sexual violation or exploitation of B, given how C has acquired these details of B's intimate life without B's consent? Or does the anonymity present effectively eliminate those concerns of wrongdoing against B on A and C's part, making the situation different than if, say, A had posted naked/sexual photographs of B instead and C had masturbated to them?
So what I've been mulling over is this: if person A publishes a completely anonymous account of their sexual experiences with person B, likewise anonymous, but doesn't ask for B's consent before doing so, can that be considered to constitute a violation of B's sexual privacy? And, if person C then masturbates to said story, can C then be considered to have participated in some kind of indirect sexual violation or exploitation of B, given how C has acquired these details of B's intimate life without B's consent? Or does the anonymity present effectively eliminate those concerns of wrongdoing against B on A and C's part, making the situation different than if, say, A had posted naked/sexual photographs of B instead and C had masturbated to them?