Does light have a mass?

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From http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/paradox-zeno/#3 posted by 137:
For now we are saying that the time Atalanta takes to reach the bus stop is composed of an infinite number of finite pieces -- …, 1/8, 1/4, and 1/2 (of the total time) -- and isn’t that an infinite time?

I don't know why... but this seems sooooooooo familiar... :rolleyes:

From "Where is the limit?????", posted by TruthSeeker (Nelson, me... :p):
If you don't stop using your mind, you'll never get to any point. You can divide things in the infinitesimal, going to atoms, subatomic particles, quarks...
You can "multiply" things in millions and millions of times, going to solar system, galaxy, universe...

But... whatever...
Get a calculator and press the number 1.
Then divide it by 10. Again. Again. Again. Again. Again...
Well... when you get to a number like that:
0,000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000001
You might get tired and stop doing it...
Press the number 1 again.
Now, multiply it by 10. Again. Again. Again. Again. Again...
You will probably get tired when you get to somthing like:
1000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000

Well... see... you can divide something infinite times and you will never really get to a point. You can also multiply and you won't get to any point either...

So...
Where is the limit??

Thanks 137 :)
 
137,

<i>Based on your statement, time dilation is solely a matter of observation.</i>

Yes. It is intricately tied up with observation and relative velocity.

<i>This is one of the conundrums of SR. It uses a formula which was developed to uphold the existence of the ether.</i>

The historical development of the formula is interesting, but irrelevant. The formula was reinterpreted by Einstein. It works. What else matters?

<i>Are you saying that even in non-SR FOR variation based solely on distance, that my observation that my twin 3 miles away is 1" tall is true.</i>

Ah - I misunderstood your point. I thought you were still talking about length contraction. But...

Yes, your observation is true. You can extrapolate what's happening over <b>there</b> to what's going on <b>here</b> only by making observations at a distance and using some transforming formula to convert your measurements-at-a-distance into equivalent measurement-here units. That's what the Lorentz tranformations do. In a non-relativistic context, to work out the height "here" of a 3-inch person on a train "there" you need to use some kind of trigonometic formula to convert the observation to a reality you can use here.

The question of course arises as to what is the "true" height of the person. Arguably, the best indicator of the person's height is the height they themselves measure in their own frame of reference. Call that their "proper" height. Well, here's some news for you - relativity is no different. Objects still have a "proper" length and proper time in relativity - the time they themselves measure. If you want to go to a different frame of reference, use Lorentz or whatever. You can even call the proper length and proper time the "real" length and time if you like, but that's just choice of terminology.

<i>This smacks of Deconstructionism which has no place in any science.</i>

Science is based on breaking down big problems into smaller, more manageable ones.

<i>Physics is the opposite of fuzzying out the observer/reality pairing. If anything physics is saying, 'Do not always believe what you see, for appearances can be deceiving.'</i>

Relativity forces us to take a step back in the other direction.

<i>If the 'science' is saying you cannot distinguish between observation and reality, then the science is incomplete.</i>

Is it? Why are you so tied to the idea of a single reality?
 
James R,

Science is based on breaking down big problems into smaller, more manageable ones.

Science should also be able to "see the big picture". That's what causes the problems and limitations in science. By judgement, logic and reason, science categorizes and tries to order the universe, losing the true nature of it.
 
difference

James R,
The historical development of the formula is interesting, but irrelevant. The formula was reinterpreted by Einstein. It works. What else matters?
We differ on this. Scientific development is not made in grand sweeping away of the past. If we follow the historical developments in a thread of scientific inquiry, we see the golden thread of development. there are many deadends and backtracks in order to pursue the truth of the matter. I believe it is absolutely relevant. The Lorentz formulas were used to explain a null result, based on formulaic assumptions that the ether would be measured. The scientific inquiry of dilation and contraction is rooted in 'etherness'..the fact that Einstein was steeped in the etherness and rejected the ether and yet decided to use the formula is not coincidental.
Arguably, the best indicator of the person's height is the height they themselves measure in their own frame of reference.
The best indicator is a precise standard, taking into account actual physical properties. This is what I am driving at. The 'realness' of the apparent height of the distant person is translated into the standard measure, by trigonomety [for example] as you said. One of my favorite methods is the tree/tree shadow/self/self shadow measuring calculation. The claims of relativity's proper measurements in their own frame is known. I still contend that the observed dilation and shortening is of an order of distorted visual information. The quick panning camera photos are often used as an artistic rendering of the 'actual' distortion of an automobile. These sorts of claims violate the undersatnding of many branches of science. Material Scientists and Engineers know what stresses and strains and compressions certain materials can take.
My claim is that the Lorentzian transformation works regarding observations. But that there is no physical distortins occurring. If we build a glass mold in a spaceship of a goblet and pour glass in and let it cool and in this constant % of c environment it is as round as the sun. Since the glass mold was not moved during casting, the glass should physically be contracted along the axis of movement. When the glass is transferred to a ship and returned to earth and its FOR is slowed down, what I am hearing is that the glass should be oblong to its original axis of movement. Now, the claim that the contraction was real means that the glass is oblong, if the contraction was merely a distorted observation[which would actually mean that the glass would have been observed by the stationary FOR as being oblong perpindicular to the axis of movement] then there is no physically real contraction.
Science is based on breaking down big problems into smaller, more manageable ones.
Understood...I am referring to a movement which seeks to demolish all sigifiers, basically set afloat all historical links between ideas and their reference points. I do not believe all Relativists are Deconstructionists, but all Deconstructionists use Relativity, perhaps wrongly, to further this disintegration.
Relativity forces us to take a step back in the other direction.
What is the baseline direction that R is forcing us to step back from? Do you mean Relativity is forcing us back into an era of 'always believe what you see?'
As stated many posts back. A mirage appears to reflect a thirst quenching oasis. If I trust my observation, I may be led in the wrong direction.
Why are you so tied to the idea of a single reality?
This is a loaded question that overlaps philosophy, science, existence and time. First, if you mean by a single reality that there is a possibility of an observation of a phenomenon which is not the phenomenon, then we have covered that. The observation of a supernova 27 light years away, is a 27 light year old image. It is an observation not the object. If you are speaking of a grand single reality which all humanity has in common within the realm of physics, then science counts on a singel reality. The ability to understand how it all works. All of the constants and measurements, this foundations of our understanding are further and further refined. The physical interactions and entities which make up our universe may continually evade complete understanding, but we standardize measurements and continue to delve deeper and farther. An atom of Hydrogen is an atom of Hydrogen throughout the universe. Do you deny this single reality? How close can a single Hydrogen get before it becomes H2? If I spend billions of dollars building a % of light speed ship that uses the contraction of rods as an actual physical effect of near light speed with the purpose of creating useful substances by compressing them beyond any non speed of light physical contraction, then there better damn well be a consensus that it is a REAL effect and not just a phantom measurement.

137
 
137,

<i>The best indicator is a precise standard, taking into account actual physical properties.</i>

What are these "actual physical properties" of which you speak? When we measure any property, how do we know we're getting the real thing, rather than a perception of it?

<i>My claim is that the Lorentzian transformation works regarding observations. But that there is no physical distortins occurring.</i>

That depends what you mean by "physical distortion". If you mean that the object being observed sees no distortion in its own frame of reference, then I agree. But the distortion is real for another observer.

Incidentally, there <b>are</b> situations in which relativity requires actually distortion of objects. Take a disc and spin it around. According to relativity, the outer edge of the disc must undergo a Lorentz contraction relative to the centre. The only way this can happen is if the material of the disc can deform. Thus, relativity tells us that no absolutely rigid objects can exist.

<i>I do not believe all Relativists are Deconstructionists, but all Deconstructionists use Relativity, perhaps wrongly, to further this disintegration.</i>

I agree.

<i>What is the baseline direction that R is forcing us to step back from? Do you mean Relativity is forcing us back into an era of 'always believe what you see?'</i>

No, it is forcing us to step back from the idea of one immutable truth. QM does the same thing, by the way, by allowing an object to exist in many places or states simultaneously. Today's universe is non-deterministic. Compare the clockwork universe of Newton.
 
measure or phantom

What are these "actual physical properties" of which you speak? When we measure any property, how do we know we're getting the real thing, rather than a perception of it?
Has the periodic table been tossed out the window? Atomic weights? Planck's constant? The speed of light? Now who is entering in the philosophical realm of realness? Anti-relativists are usually the ones who ask what is a measurement? Of course there is a physical process which occurs that is removed from the actual when we measure, whether by eye or electronic detector. Henri Bergson does an interesting job philosophizing between an object and the observation and how it is an abstraction. This abstraction may move closer and closer to the sum of the parts, but it will never BE the object. The big BUT is that we standardize our measures and test systems. You are a philosophical deconstructionist if you are saying that we can trust no measure specifically, but we must trust generalized SR measurements. The correct testability of a measure of the real is obviously the proximity and consistency of the tool of measurement.
If we began this conversation with your question"When we measure any property, how do we know we're getting the real thing, rather than a perception of it?" I would say, "exactly," we need to test against the standards which we humans have devized and make sure that we are measuring the accumulated length of this amalgam of matter. If there are distortions in the measurement, based on our standards, then we need to investigate what is causing the distortion or variance.
But the distortion is real for another observer.
The observed distortion is 'real' but the object is not physically distorted. If I stick my hand in the water and you see that it has been bent drastically by the refractive index and your position, are you claiming that my arm has in reality been physically deformed or is it the apparent disfiguration caused by the properties of light and medium refraction?
Incidentally, there are situations in which relativity requires actually distortion of objects. Take a disc and spin it around. According to relativity, the outer edge of the disc must undergo a Lorentz contraction relative to the centre. The only way this can happen is if the material of the disc can deform. Thus, relativity tells us that no absolutely rigid objects can exist.
First, I will look up the various versions of this experiment and evaluate the data. There are references to it in the previous link. Some of them prove the same thing Lorentz did by analyzing the M-M experiments.There are conflicting views on this experiment. Two, re-read your circular argument; a) relativity requires actual distortion, b) spin a disc, c) Relativity say that the disc MUST undergo a contraction, d) ergo this predicted contraction can only happen if the material can deform, e) Therefore, Relativity correctly says that materials can contract. Materials can contract under circumstances, any Freshman in college physics knows this prior to the first class. The contractability of materials is not in question, it is the explanation of contractions that is in question. The atomic structures are astounding in the amount of space, the possible interactions between the 'points' of material can be contracted or expanded depending upon the combination of forces which act upon them. Relativity may give satisfactory results, but these results may be as satisfactory as the Lorentz transformation were in 'proving' the ether due to a null result.
No, it is forcing us to step back from the idea of one immutable truth. QM does the same thing, by the way, by allowing an object to exist in many places or states simultaneously. Today's universe is non-deterministic. Compare the clockwork universe of Newton.
You are overstating Relativity and the focus of Relativistic physicists. If you are correct, then why the focus on the one immutable truth of a Unified Field Theory. There is still an immutable truth being sought in the ability to make all known phenomenon fit within a unified framework. Your take on the step back seems to involve something deeper..perhaps a desire that rests in a personal philosophy or spirituality?

Now how about we have a few sips of cognac in a glass that was formed round while in a spaceship going a % of c. Will it be round in our FOR when it returns from space?

Have a good day.
137
 
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137,

The distinction between our two positions here is not an important scientific one, in my opinion, but rather is a philosophical one. Reading your last post, I agree pretty much entirely with your science. I disagree with the conclusion that you draw on the philosophy - that there is a necessary absolute reality. It may be the case that there is one true reality, but it is not necessary that that be the case. The point is arguable.

The closer we look at things, the more they seem to blur in front of our eyes. Look at an atom from a distance and it looks a lot like a little billiard ball. Come up close and it smears out into a fuzzy ball of probability. The substance of an atom is tenuous.

<i>You are a philosophical deconstructionist if you are saying that we can trust no measure specifically, but we must trust generalized SR measurements.</i>

I did not say we cannot trust measurements. I say that what we measure depends in part on how we measure. Witness the collapse of quantum wavefunctions upon measurement. Measure the wave properties of an atom and the atom will appear wavelike. Measure the particle properties and it will appear particle-like.

<i>The observed distortion is 'real' but the object is not physically distorted.</i>

Ok. I think we agree on that.

<i>...re-read your circular argument; a) relativity requires actual distortion, b) spin a disc, c) Relativity say that the disc MUST undergo a contraction, d) ergo this predicted contraction can only happen if the material can deform, e) Therefore, Relativity correctly says that materials can contract.</i>

No. My argument was not circular. My argument is a proof by contradiction.
(a) Assume materials cannot deform.
(b) Taking the example of a spinning disc, relativity requires deformation.
(c) Since (b) contradicts (a), either (a) or relativity is wrong. On the basis of other experiments, I conclude that throwing out assumption (a) is the best move.

Note that this was not an attempt to prove anything about relativity. It is an argument for the non-existence of rigid objects, which draws apon a relativistic result for its demonstration.

<i>If you are correct, then why the focus on the one immutable truth of a Unified Field Theory.</i>

A Unified Field Theory <b>may</b> not be an immutable truth. It may be no more than a good description of how the universe works. We can't know if such a thing is an immutable truth.

<i>Your take on the step back seems to involve something deeper..perhaps a desire that rests in a personal philosophy or spirituality?</i>

Perhaps. I believe history shows that it is dangerous to be overconfident in our knowledge. Theories held confidently have been shown to be wrong many times in the past. I think that the goal of science is to accurately describe our universe. I do not believe that it can tell us what's at the bottom of it all.

<i>Now how about we have a few sips of cognac in a glass that was formed round while in a spaceship going a % of c. Will it be round in our FOR when it returns from space?</i>

Yes. Of course.
 
Well OK, then

(a) Assume materials cannot deform.
Just to be clear, this has never been my assumption. There are two different veins. 1. Is a distortion real or observed and 2. What is the cause of the distortion
a necessary absolute reality
For the purposes of physics, there is a discernable tapestry...a consistent reality[absolute in my mind, meaning there is an understandable and cohesive interconnectedness which can be understood.] Some may interpret this too materialistically...perhaps it should be defined as the standardization of measures and standardization of vocabulary of communication. Speakers of two languages must find a synchronicity in order to communicate as fully as possible.
I do not argue the statistically fuzzy quantum theory, what I argue is that there are parameters for the variables of matter/energy and that the 'what is' of our discoveries have easily agreed upon 'absolutes' [though you do not like this term] such as 'this block of ice is cold compared to this burning coal.' Atomic weights are not arbitary and are considered standardized.
I myself pointed out with regards to the fuzziness. The faster someone goes, the more fuzzed out over a greater area within a specific measure one becomes...
depends in part on how we measure
I agree. To expand, we must know that what we measure corresponds to a real rather than an apparent, to the substance not the accident, to put it in Aristotelean words.
We can't know if such a thing is an immutable truth
Given the limits of human foible-ridden intellects, I agree, but you part company with a large majority of Relativists, and I think, most cosmologists.
Perhaps. I believe history shows that it is dangerous to be overconfident in our knowledge. Theories held confidently have been shown to be wrong many times in the past. I think that the goal of science is to accurately describe our universe. I do not believe that it can tell us what's at the bottom of it all.
We are in complete agreement in your quote. ***tip back undistorted cognac glass for a sip*** cheers....
 
<i>(a) Assume materials cannot deform.
Just to be clear, this has never been my assumption.</i>

I know. It was really a throw-away comment of mine. I didn't mean to make an issue out of it.

<i>Speakers of two languages must find a synchronicity in order to communicate as fully as possible.</i>

True, but arguably that only means that their languages for expressing ideas are similar. It doesn't mean that what the language describes in the two cases is the same. It's like that old philosophical question of whether your perception of the colour blue is the same as mine or not. Who knows? As long as we agree on the colours we call blue, it isn't a problem.

<i>Atomic weights are not arbitary and are considered standardized.</i>

They are standardized, but in an arbitrary way. We pick one atomic weight (carbon 12) to assign a value to, and all the rest are relative to that. We could easily have standardised atomic weights some other way.

<i>I agree. To expand, we must know that what we measure corresponds to a real rather than an apparent, to the substance not the accident, to put it in Aristotelean words.</i>

I say we can't necessarily make that distinction. But we're talking more philosophy than science.

Anyway, it appears that we're as close to agreement as we're going to get on this point now.
 
appearance vs science

It's like that old philosophical question of whether your perception of the colour blue is the same as mine or not. Who knows? As long as we agree on the colours we call blue, it isn't a problem.
The range of perception may blend philosophy, psychology and physiology as well as the linguistics of naming colors, but you are leaving out physics' attempt to standardize. The range of color we call blue has a specific frequence range. This definability within the realm of science is what consitutes the substance, the objective reality which allows physics, and all sciences to intellegently discuss, expound and develop theorizations and experimentations.
They are standardized, but in an arbitrary way.
This is no earth shaking statement describing an arbitrary existence. If, Within a solitary framework a ruler thought to measure 1 meter, but it is off by a few centimeters. We develop an architectural plan using this ruler. The same ruler is mass produced for teh work crew and we complete a building. Within this framework, this standard is acceptable. The standardization issue is critical when we expand our scope to cover other frameworks.
My constant contention is that humans have the ability to do the synchronizing well and that science understands this critical need for science, commerce, etc.,
This is why it is critical that people know and understand the difference of what is being measured and what the implications are. Measurements of received visual information from high speed movement is just that. This is a rich topic that has seemed to me more in the order of overblown significance and incorrect assumptions that were not 100% intended. This doesn't invalidate the equivalence insight of Einstein. Even here some writers go off on different direction.


Finally..and most important. So you DO agree that a cognac glass that is cast going a % of c, will be round when it is returned to earth and in one piece?
Once I know your response I will ponder to you a follow up.

Ultimately..I am gonna have to go back through the post and get the tasks I have set for myself.
 
<i>The range of perception may blend philosophy, psychology and physiology as well as the linguistics of naming colors, but you are leaving out physics' attempt to standardize.</i>

Standardisations simply mean that our <b>measurements</b> of certain quantities are consistent. They do not have any necessary implications for some kind of underlying reality.

<i>My constant contention is that humans have the ability to do the synchronizing well and that science understands this critical need for science, commerce, etc.</i>

I agree.

<i>Finally..and most important. So you DO agree that a cognac glass that is cast going a % of c, will be round when it is returned to earth and in one piece?</i>

Yes. It's own reference frame can be regarded as stationary, provided it is inertial.
 
How deep?

They do not have any necessary implications for some kind of underlying reality.
Do you need a qualifier? Either the measurements correspond to a phenomenon or they do not. If you want to define reality as that which can never be understood, then science must have no real meaning. If I throw a rock at your head, and you are unable to dodge my perfect aim, and you are klonked in the forehead, we can discuss the Scientific, the Physiological, the Psychological, the Philosophical, the Geological, et al., arenas of this interaction, the reality of the interaction is that one sentient entity slung a non-sentient entity at another sentient entity and the impacted entity becomes unhappy. I may agree that this world is but a veil over something grander and fully unattainable by our senses, but within the framework of our existence in this universe, there are fundamental signifiers of phenomenon. This consistent phenomenon, whether on the sensory surface or the further elaboration of the fundamental interactions is refered to as reality. Are you a subscriber to the Deconstructionist camp? Just curious.
Yes. It's own reference frame can be regarded as stationary, provided it is inertial.
So it is round when it is created in % of c and round when deposited back on earth [as the stationary FOR.] If the shortening of its length parallel to the direction of travel is a real phenomenon, then how can glass, that oh so marvelous substance, take the impact of bending and distorting to round from one FOR [% of c] to another[stationary.] Do you agree that the shortening of rods is an appearance of shortening, rather than an actual shortening? If you say the shortening is a real phenomenon, then I say, 'pshaw', the glass being forced into being round from an oval shape would shatter under the forces. Glass has a limited elasticity that Relativity claims to bypass, does it?
 
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137,

<i>Are you a subscriber to the Deconstructionist camp?</i>

What I believe shouldn't make a difference to whether my arguments are valid, should it? Perhaps I am just playing devil's advocate. ;)

<i>Do you agree that the shortening of rods is an appearance of shortening, rather than an actual shortening?</i>

We've already covered this. To an observer, appearance <b>is</b> reality. The "stationary" observer sees length contraction of the glass. The co-moving observer does not. Both is right in his own frame of reference.

<i>If you say the shortening is a real phenomenon, then I say, 'pshaw', the glass being forced into being round from an oval shape would shatter under the forces.</i>

What forces?
 
depends

What I believe shouldn't make a difference to whether my arguments are valid, should it? Perhaps I am just playing devil's advocate.
Correct..., this was a question of curiousity. I rarely argue invalidation of argument due to belief.:D
To an observer, appearance is reality. The "stationary" observer sees length contraction of the glass. The co-moving observer does not. Both is right in his own frame of reference.
We may have covered it somewhat, but there is still a huge difference between appearance and reality. I could say teh same thing...that I have given many examples where my 'observation' does not reflect the 'reality.' 1. My arm appears to be broken out of shape by the refraction of water...the reality is the observation...the measurement of the image shows a distortion which is not real in the object being observed. 2. Desert road mirages may show multiple reflections and refractions of an object, say a truck, and the appearances are distorted in ways in which the actual materials of the object could not tolerate without complete disintegration.
To an observer appearance can many times be an illusion or a distortion. This appearance is a reality of measurement, not a reality of the object. This is the biggest hurdle with SR and the root of the criticisms.
The argument seems to oscillate between 'it is merely a valid measurement based on the demands of light speed limitations' and 'the distortion effects on an object are real.'
What forces?
i will attempt to be Germanic....this is not an azttempt to be condescending, it seems to be necessary since we can only go by what words we type.
1. Molten glass is created and made pourable within % of c FOR
2. A Mold is made of a round cognac glass in the same % of c FOR
3. Since the Mold is made in a % of c, then it is actually shortened in the direction of travel.
4. The molten glass is poured in and it crystallizes.
5. Once hardened it is in the appearance of a round shape which is really not round due to the shortening of rods.
6. The glass matrix has a certain brittleness due to its specific elasticity limitations
7. The FOR ship stops on earth and the cognac glass is examined, it turns out that:::::
A. The glass is still round
B. The glass is shattered

If the answer is A, then I contend that the shortening of rods does not occur except as a measurement by the 'stationary' FOR, BECAUSE
If the answer is B, the I contend that the shortening of rods is a REAL affect, because glass cannot be deformed to the extent that the shortening of rods proclaims without shattering.

This is where it is important to define when something is merely a measurement of appearance and when something is an actual physical affect.

By asking about forces, are you pointing towards an answer which says that within % of c travel that physical forces become increasingly irrelevant?

Can we put sodium and chlorine in close quarters in a % of c travelling FOR and teh shortening of rods will effect the reaction to create salt?

Frankly, I do not understand the inability within these discussions [not just ours] to deal with the essential realness or appearance and how different these two qualities can be?

137
 
137,

I don't know why you keep asking what is essentially the same question multiple times. Here's yet another repeat of my previous answers:

<i>We may have covered it somewhat, but there is still a huge difference between appearance and reality. I could say teh same thing...that I have given many examples where my 'observation' does not reflect the 'reality.' 1. My arm appears to be broken out of shape by the refraction of water...the reality is the observation...the measurement of the image shows a distortion which is not real in the object being observed. ...</i>

Your definition of "reality", as I keep pointing out, is an attempt to somehow remove the process of observation from the determination of how objects act. I say you can't necessarily do that. Your question in the example here is: "Is my arm (in the water) really bent, or not?" I say that the way you define "bent" and "not bent" depends on a particular type of observation. Your arm in "unbent" when you look at it in the air. That is your defined state of "unbentness". Then, you assume that any observed change from that predetermined state is a mere illusion. I say that your arm, in terms of visual perception (as opposed to some other standard you might like to conflate into the discussion) is "really" bent in the water. It is valid to ask whether the arm would still be bent if the water wasn't there, and the the answer is "no", but to come to that conclusion you need to map the reality in the water to an out-of-water reality somehow. Your brain is good at that kind of mapping.

As for your glass example...

<i>3. Since the Mold is made in a % of c, then it is actually shortened in the direction of travel.</i>

This statement is meaningless to me unless you specify a frame of reference. "Actually shortened" according to whom?

<i>5. Once hardened it is in the appearance of a round shape which is really not round due to the shortening of rods.</i>

Again, you need to carefully specify reference frames for this statement to mean anything.

<i>By asking about forces, are you pointing towards an answer which says that within % of c travel that physical forces become increasingly irrelevant?</i>

No, not at all. I was making the point that there are no mysterious new forces which arise simply because of relative inertial motion. If there is no force in one frame of reference, there won't be any force in a frame of reference moving at constant velocity relative to the first frame, either.

<i>Can we put sodium and chlorine in close quarters in a % of c travelling FOR and teh shortening of rods will effect the reaction to create salt?</i>

From whose point of view?
 
There is a good reason

James R,

There is always a good reason to ask similar questions, both to elicit a fuller understanding of a person's stance and to build a body of one's knowledge as a testing ground for validity. As you keep further elaborating your understanding, we more fully see what claim is being laid regarding the topic and a more precise evaluation of your depth of knowledge and the logical consistency of the arguments presented.
In delineating the difference between observation and object of observation, I am well within the correct sphere of physics. There has 'always' been a need to ensure that the observed phenomenon is an integral part of the object observed. This falls within the realm of standardized measurements and a full accounting of all variables within a study.
As I have stated before, the observed spontaneous generation of life from rotted meat was proved to be seperate from the actually infestation caused by flies.
Much of astronomy and optics is highly aware of the difference between an observation and object of observation. Are you saying an optical flaw in a telescopes lens is a reality of the observed? Let's say an apparent binary star system turns out to be a double refraction caused by a lens anomaly. If you say that there really is a physical object pair of stars then you are wrong. It is a 'real observation' based on a flawed measuring device.
Maybe you do not understand my point, so again I will ask. Is the person's arm A] broken because of the refraction of water or is it B]not broken and the observation does not match the reality of the physical system of the arm.
I am starting to think you do not like these sorts of questions because you may have to contradict your stance that 'observations' are just as 'real' as the systems which are being observed. There can be a direct correspondence, i.e., I see someone with a broken arm and it is physically broken, or an apparent correspondence, as in the refracted example of the appearance of a broken arm. If you are saying these are equivalent realities of the physical system called arm, then you are self-deluded.
This statement is meaningless to me unless you specify a frame of reference. "Actually shortened" according to whom?
You basically answered the question. If the reality of the system is based on observation alone, and this observation ends any necessity of further inquiry into the basis of the phenomenon, then it is a phantom phenomenon with no basis in reality and it reeks of pseudo-science. If the glass does not really crystallize in a contracted way, then basically it is a snapshot of the reality of the FOR.
137: Can we put sodium and chlorine in close quarters in a % of c travelling FOR and the shortening of rods will effect the reaction to create salt?
James R: From whose point of view?
You must be kidding....
Do you want to rethink this? So you think in one framework, one will observed the chemical bond to have formed, while in the other the chemical bond will not have formed and when the % of c stops back on at rest FOR, the chemical bond will be dissolved?
Are there any relativist chemists out there who would agree that salt can be formed and not formed at the same time?
 
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137,

<i>Are you saying an optical flaw in a telescopes lens is a reality of the observed? Let's say an apparent binary star system turns out to be a double refraction caused by a lens anomaly. If you say that there really is a physical object pair of stars then you are wrong.</i>

Until the telescope observer knows about the flaw in the lens, as far as he is concerned there are two stars. Once he knows about the flaw, he has a way of mapping his observations to a different conclusion.

<i>Is the person's arm A] broken because of the refraction of water or is it B]not broken and the observation does not match the reality of the physical system of the arm.</i>

The person's arm is not broken. There are other ways to determine that than by looking at it. I thought we were discussing whether it was <b>bent</b> or not.

<i>If the reality of the system is based on observation alone, and this observation ends any necessity of further inquiry into the basis of the phenomenon, then it is a phantom phenomenon with no basis in reality and it reeks of pseudo-science.</i>

At some point, you'll always hit a wall, where no further inquiry into a phenomenon is possible. There's still no guarantee that you know the "reality" of the phenomenon when you hit that wall.

137: <i>Can we put sodium and chlorine in close quarters in a % of c travelling FOR and the shortening of rods will effect the reaction to create salt?</i>
James R: <i>From whose point of view?</i>
137: <i>So you think in one framework, one will observed the chemical bond to have formed, while in the other the chemical bond will not have formed and when the % of c stops back on at rest FOR, the chemical bond will be dissolved?</i>

No. I didn't say that. Different observers agree on which events happen and do not happen. They disagree on <b>when</b> and <b>where</b> those events happen.

<i>Are there any relativist chemists out there who would agree that salt can be formed and not formed at the same time?</i>

Of course not. That's a logical contradiction.
 
flaw

Once he knows about the flaw, he has a way of mapping his observations to a different conclusion.
The observation of a % of c object from the 'twin' at rest FOR is flawed. The SR Lorentzian formulas illustrate the flaw. A correction formula can easily correct for the flawed observations with a result of the real length...one which is synchronized to our accepted standard.
The person's arm is not broken. There are other ways to determine that than by looking at it. I thought we were discussing whether it was bent or not.
If you say the observation is as real as the actual physical configuration of the object of observation, then why should it matter whether it is broke or not? If the arm is broken in such a way that the refracted image appears to show an unbroken arm, is the physical configuration of the arm not broken? The observation of what appears to be an unbroken arm is a result of an optical flaw , so to speak. There is in reality an arm broken...a physical construct of an arm which is broken. You seem to be raising flawed measurement and conclusions of data to the level of reality when in fact it is faulty, misleading data leading to faulty, misleading conclusions.
At some point, you'll always hit a wall, where no further inquiry into a phenomenon is possible. There's still no guarantee that you know the "reality" of the phenomenon when you hit that wall.
Not according to Relatavists and Quantumists...everytime a wall is claimed, some 'new' discovery is made. Your two sentences form a thesis and antithesis which always will drive a cycle of synthesis and return to Thesis and Antithesis. A wall cannot be hit and no guarantee of a reality cannot co-exist as a settled issue in physics. Aren't you now arguing Zeno's paradox transferred to the realm of knowledge?
James R: From whose point of view?
137: So you think in one framework, one will observed the chemical bond to have formed, while in the other the chemical bond will not have formed and when the % of c stops back on at rest FOR, the chemical bond will be dissolved?

James R:No. I didn't say that. Different observers agree on which events happen and do not happen. They disagree on when and where those events happen.
You may not have said it directly, but you implied it by saying, 'From who's point of view?' My proposition was to put sodium and chlorine in close proximity, not creating salt directly. The proposition was illustrating the falseness of the proposition that a contraction other than a measurement distortion takes place. Either you did not understand the proposition, or you are evading the issue of whether the contraction of rods has any meaning other than a measurement of distortion by an At Rest FOR of % of c FOR.
137: Are there any relativist chemists out there who would agree that salt can be formed and not formed at the same time?

James R: Of course not. That's a logical contradiction.
Then no % of c light speed can effect any chemical bonding, therefore there is no contraction except in rest FOR measurement of % of c FOR.
 
137,

I suspect our point of disagreement is more subtle than you think, since you keep coming back to something I have agreed with you about several times already.

<i>The observation of a % of c object from the 'twin' at rest FOR is flawed. The SR Lorentzian formulas illustrate the flaw.</i>

No. That is something different. Since there is no preferred frame of reference, you cannot say that one observer is more correct than another observer when you're talking about relativity. There is no test you can do which will show who is "really" right.

Compare the broken arm scenario. <b>Any</b> two observers, in that case, will agree as to whether an event occurred which broke the arm. Either it has been physically broken or it hasn't. So, I think we agree on that example.

What we disagree about in that example is whether the observation of bending is something "real" or not. I say it is; you seem to be saying it isn't. I say that what an observer sees is "real". You try to divide the world into reality and illusion.

<i>Aren't you now arguing Zeno's paradox transferred to the realm of knowledge?</i>

Perhaps. I say that we will probably never reach the "end" of what's knowable. There is room to disagree with me on that.

<i>My proposition was to put sodium and chlorine in close proximity, not creating salt directly. The proposition was illustrating the falseness of the proposition that a contraction other than a measurement distortion takes place. Either you did not understand the proposition, or you are evading the issue of whether the contraction of rods has any meaning other than a measurement of distortion by an At Rest FOR of % of c FOR.</i>

Two observers will agree as to whether salt forms or not. Their reasons for where, when and how the salt forms may well be different. If they are in different reference frames, there is no experiment you can do which will tell you whose explanation is the "real" one. Both are real.

<i>Then no % of c light speed can effect any chemical bonding,</i>

Yes it can. The times and distances involved change depending on the motion of the observer. Whether the physical process happens or not does not change.
 
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