Addressing the latest distracting blather...
My position is that human mathematics describe observed Universal physical functions and therefore can be used to argue that Universal functions are mathematical in essence.
Nobody observes "Universal physical functions". They probably don't exist. (Assuming the use of the word "function" here implies the mathematical meaning of that word rather than actual physical processes.)
Generic Universal maths do not cause universal physical functions, they logically regulate physical functions. (The Black Box works mathematically)
Regulation of a physical process requires something to cause that regulation.
----> What you need to do is to explain to me how mathematics could possibly cause anything in the physical world.
You're claiming there is something called "Generic Universal maths" that can somehow affect physical things and "logically regulate" them.
Explain to me how "Generic Universal maths" can affect physical things. What
is "Generic Universal maths", anyway? Is it a physical thing, or is it conceptual, like all the other maths we know of?
If humans can use mathematics to copy or imitate natural physical functions to a high degree of accuracy, what precisely is the objection to the concept that Universal functions are in fact based on what humans have named "mathematical in essence"?
Humans use mathematics to
describe and theoretically
model physical processes.
Mathematics cannot "copy" a physical thing, because mathematics can't bring physical things into existence (unless you can show how it can do that).
If human symbolic mathematics are used to prove Universal functions, is it not logical to deduce that Universal functions have mathematical underpinnings?
What's a "Universal function"? Give me an example or two, please. And how does "human symbolic mathematics"
prove anything about those? Give an example or two.
What you are saying in essence is that when it looks like a duck, walks like a duck, quacks like duck, it isn't a duck!?
A concept does not look or act very much like a physical object or process. There's a fundamental distinction between map and territory. You have had that distinction explained to you many times before. Don't you understand it, yet?
Forget human symbolics They are just human codified tools to describe the mathematical nature of spacetime itself.
No one argues with that analogy.
Just a sentence or two earlier, you were saying that "human symbolics" are "used to prove Universal functions", and can therefore - for unexplained reasons - be used to "deduce that Universal functions have mathematical underpinnings".
Now you want to throw all of that away? Just two or three sentences further. Okay, then. But you're not making any kind of coherent argument, you realise. You flip flop from one thing to another, almost as if you forgot what you wrote two sentences earlier. Are you okay?
But if mathematics are a human tool and humans are part of this Universe, then it logically follows that the Universe has mathematical properties.
By proxy, you mean? The universe has mathematical properties because mathematical properties are made up by humans in their descriptions of the universe?
That's not particularly controversial, but it is very different to your core claim and to the claims of people like Tegmark.
Humans are not creator gods, our brains are products of Universal evolved physics. No mysteries, just plain logic.
What's "Universal evolved physics"?
Where's the logic?
The Fibonacci Sequence in daisies is the same all over the world, regardless of the symbolic language used to "describe" it.
The Fibonacci sequence is not "in" daisies. A physical daisy does not contain a mathematical concept.
IMO, in nature, "evolution via natural selection" is a mathematical, albeit probabilistic process.
Nobody cares about your opinion on such things, until you can show that a mathematical concept can cause a physical change.
So far, you haven't even come up with an in-principle argument for how it could
conceivably do anything like that.