Ben the Texan was toying with all of y'all, and it went over almost all of y'all's heads. To summarize, the Reimann zeta function is defined as
$$\zeta(s) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac 1 {n^s}$$
By analytic continuation, $$\zeta(-1) = -1/12$$ and thus, by analytic continuation,
$$\zeta(-1) = \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} n = -1/12$$
Nice trick, Ben. So what's wrong with this?
Simple: The analytic continuation of some function f(z) is some function F(z) such that F(z)=f(z) everywhere f(z) is defined. Here, f(z) is the series definition of the zeta function and F(z) is its analytic continuation to the complex plane less the line $$\Re z = 1$$. The original series diverges for $$\Re s <= 1$$. The analytic continuation does not change the fact that the series diverges for s=-1.
Edited to add:
What Ben did was the analytic equivalent of the various devices using division by zero that "prove" 1=2.