Were Adam & Eve The First Ever Humans?

If the bible states that God created mankinkind, snd instructed them to go forth and multiply, which it does exactly that. Then that explains all the genetic variation we see today.
No, it doesn't.
The Bible is not a biology textbook. It is a collection of stories.
 
I am not well versed in the Bible, though I was raised Roman Catholic, but I would imagine that if there are two accounts of something in the same book, and only one of them can be right, and the other wrong, then does that not bring into question the whole book, because one of the stories contradicts the other, when the whole book and all of its stories are meant to be the complete and infallible truth? I love and believe in Christianity and the Bible but I thought I should ask this question to both theists and atheists.

There aren’t two accounts.
There is one account of the creation of mankind, and another account of an individual human specifically created by God , then later on, a woman is created (from his body), to quell the loneliness of the man. At no point were they instructed to go forth and multiply, like the rest of mankind were.
Also, it explains where Cain got a wife. No longer do we have to use a sinful act to explain that.

Isn’t that good?

Jan.
 
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There is one account of the creation of mankind, and another account of an individual human specifically created by God , then later on, a woman is created (from his body), to quell the loneliness of the man. At no point were they instructed to go forth and multiply, like the rest of mankind were.
That's two accounts.
Also, it explains where Cain got a wife. No longer do we have to use a sinful act to explain that.
The explanation is still a sinful act - just a different one, as one would expect from different accounts.

Which brings us to the Noachian Flood bottleneck - and more sinning, along with the further elimination of any possibility of accounting for animal or human genetic diversity etc in this bizarre fashion.
 
Nothing in the bible gives reason to think there were two separate creation accounts.
The fact there are two separate accounts does.

Or are you suggesting that uppercase-A male Adam was created after all of the lower-case-A male and female adam-kind were already running around? That seems to stretch the text quite a bit.

That is something that has been concluded by religionists because of the religious belief that A+E were the first ever humans. But we know the bible does not endorse that.
We know that the Bible doesn't endorse your version.

Why aren’t you prepared to look at it from the perspective that God created mankind on the sixth day, just like it says?
That's exactly how I look at it. According to the story, "mankind" was Adam and Eve, male and female.

Of course, according to reality, we know that the story is fiction. You seem to be trying to reconcile the obvious fiction with reality. Why? For your next trick, are you going to reconcile Goldilocks and the Three bears with reality?
 
I am not well versed in the Bible, though I was raised Roman Catholic, but I would imagine that if there are two accounts of something in the same book, and only one of them can be right, and the other wrong, then does that not bring into question the whole book, because one of the stories contradicts the other, when the whole book and all of its stories are meant to be the complete and infallible truth?
That's the central problem that Jan is pondering. And there are far more than that one. Consider, for example, the order of creation in Genesis 1 - water, dry land, plants, animals, then people. In Genesis 2 the order is dry land, water, plants, people, then animals. How can both be correct?

Jan's solution is to change the Bible in his own mind to make it consistent. I find that approach to be facile and self-serving. Much better to study the Bible for what it is - an (originally oral) history of a people, and later Christianity. The two books (Genesis 1 and Genesis 2) were written by two different authors at two different times, for example - they use different styles, different tenses and different words for God (Yaweh vs. Elohim.) So from that perspective it makes perfect sense that they don't match each other.

It is as silly to use the Bible as a history or biology textbook as it is to try to find morality in the Principia.
 
No, it doesn't.
The Bible is not a biology textbook. It is a collection of stories.

No one is saying it is.
It still capable of explaining the genetic variation we observe today. Whereas the idea that the human race comes from one man and one woman does not.

Jan.
 
Yes. That's what the Bible says. I know you believe differently.

It’s not a belief, bilvon, as you well know.
It is the content of the bible, as you well know (at least in this discussion).

I’m now more interested in why you so much want to maintain the idea, that the bible states something , despite knowing it does not.

Jan.
 
That's two accounts.

Not of the same scenario, hence there is no contradiction.

The explanation is still a sinful act - just a different one, as one would expect from different accounts.

How is Cain acquiring a wife from a different ethnicity,?an explanation of a sinful act?

Which brings us to the Noachian Flood bottleneck - and more sinning, along with the further elimination of any possibility of accounting for animal or human genetic diversity etc in this bizarre fashion.

That is an interesting topic also. Perhaps when we’re done with this one, we could look into it.

Jan.
 
It’s not a belief, bilvon, as you well know.
It is the content of the bible, as you well know (at least in this discussion).
No. The Bible says that "God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created him; male and female He created them." It does not say "God created man in His own image, in the image of God He created them; male and female He created them." Even if you believe it does.
 
Not of the same scenario, hence there is no contradiction.
Of different scenarios, therefore in contradiction.
It still capable of explaining the genetic variation we observe today
No, it is not. It conflicts with the observed genetic variation.
How is Cain acquiring a wife from a different ethnicity,?an explanation of a sinful act?
All of Cain's behavior - beginning with his existence in the first place - derives from and is explained by the sins committed by himself, Adam, and Eve. According to the Bible.
That is an interesting topic also. Perhaps when we’re done with this one, we could look into it.
If the topic is the first humans, the original people from which we are all descended, that is a third account.
We have the two special creations in Genesis, and the third special protection of the Flood.
 
The fact there are two separate accounts does.

That’s not a fact, unless your saying they are two separate, unrelated incidents.
The idea is they they are two separate accounts of the creation of mankind, and that idea is a belief. It’s almost as if the purpose is to erase th

Or are you suggesting that uppercase-A male Adam was created after all of the lower-case-A male and female adam-kind were already running around? That seems to stretch the text quite a bit.

I’m saying Adam was not the first ever human, and the bible, not only makes no mention of this idea, but mentions that mankind (upper or lower case, your choice) was created on the sixth day.
Adam was simply a new type of human , from whose existence made it possible for Jesus the Christ.

It We know that the Bible doesn't endorse your version.

That’s because I don’t have a version.
But it clearly states that mankind was created on day six of creation.
That is why Cain was able to get a wife.
That is why Cain was afraid of being banished by God. He feared reprisal from others, who would find out what he did.

Don’t you agree

That's exactly how I look at it. According to the story, "mankind" was Adam and Eve, male and female.

No it’s not.
Mankind is the whole collective of humans, also known as the human race. Why would you think it means one man.

Of course, according to reality, we know that the story is fiction.

We know nothing of the sort.
I know there are those who need it to be fictional. Hence the denial of what it says regarding the creation of mankind, and the instruction to go forth and multiply, and replenish the earth.

You seem to be trying to reconcile the obvious fiction with reality.

Why is it “obvious fiction”?

Why? For your next trick, are you going to reconcile Goldilocks and the Three bears with reality?

Nice try at deflecting. But you should know by now that, I can see right through that.

Why are you only prepared to look at it one way?
I am sure you’re more capable, and intelligent than that.

Jan
 
Of different scenarios, therefore in contradiction.

How do they contradict?
Based on what is written.

No, it is not. It conflicts with the observed genetic variation.

How so?

All of Cain's behavior - beginning with his existence in the first place - derives from and is explained by the sins committed by himself, Adam, and Eve. According to the Bible.

You’re not answering my question.
How is getting married to a woman who is not a close family member, like a mother, or sister, a sin. You can use any law, rule, or regulation, to answer your question.

If the topic is the first humans, the original people from which we are all descended, that is a third account.
We have the two special creations in Genesis, and the third special protection of the Flood.

But for now I am concerned with the subjected matter, which is the title of the thread.

Jan.
 
That’s not a fact, unless your saying they are two separate, unrelated incidents.
They are two separate accounts of the same incident, which is why it is no surprise that there are discrepancies. There is no reason to think they are not the same incident - i.e. the origin of mankind.

Adam was simply a new type of human , from whose existence made it possible for Jesus the Christ.
There is nothing in the Bible to suggest that there has ever been different types of humans.

That is why Cain was able to get a wife.
That is why Cain was afraid of being banished by God. He feared reprisal from others, who would find out what he did.
Cain isn't relevant to the discussion. That's another separate story.

Mankind is the whole collective of humans, also known as the human race. Why would you think it means one man.
According to the story, he WAS mankind, ALL of mankind until Eve was created. Then the two of them were all of mankind until they had children. Adam was even named "Mankind".

Why is it “obvious fiction”?
*ahem* Talking snake *ahem*

Why are you only prepared to look at itone way?
I have looked at it your way. It clearly is not supported by the text.
 
Sex between consenting siblings has been decriminalized in France, Spain, and Portugal. The laws in these nations forbid the prosecution of parents, grandparents, and siblings, provided they’re of legal age and consented to the act.
 
They are two separate accounts of the same incident, which is why it is no surprise that there are discrepancies. There is no reason to think they are not the same incident - i.e. the origin of mankind.

I have shown that they are not separate accounts of one incident, by showing that the bible states that God created mankind on the sixth day. Why do you find that difficult to accept? And why do you accept something that the bible does not say, and makes completely no sense.
Wouldn’t you rather it made sense so you understand it correctly?


There is nothing in the Bible to suggest that there has ever been different types of humans.

God creates the human race on the sixth day of creation. Both male and female.
God fashions one man out of dust.
God takes a rib from man and fashions a woman.

Are you kidding me?

Cain isn't relevant to the discussion. That's another separate story.[/quote [

Cain is very relevant, because it shows that the bible is stating there were existing civilisations at the time God created Adam.
That is huge.

According to the story, he WAS mankind,

Where does it state Adam was mankind?

*ahem* Talking snake *ahem*

Really?

Firstly the beguiled may have been if reptilian origin, but aside fro Christian depictions, there is no reason to believe it was a snake (as we understand snakes today).

There are plenty of depictions of humanoid reptilian creatures who were known to man.
At this point I am not interested in whether or not such depictions are true. Only that they are there, and they are not snakes, as we know them.

So I think people use the term “talking snake” , to try and show an absurdity, not because they think the beguiled was a talking snake.

I think the mordern Christian doesn’t seem too bothered with that depiction because it goes with the belief that Adam and Eve were the first ever humans. You guys are more alike than you can imagine.

I have looked at it your way. It clearly is not supported by the text.

The text says that God created man (as in mankind), both male and female, on the sixth day. It’s not my way, it’s what the bible clearly says. So I think you are lying.

Jan.
 
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