Since iceaura has already commented on your use or misuse of the language, I won't fuss about that too much. I'll try to concentrate on the underlying sentiments you're apparently trying to express, instead.
Since I have iceaura on ignore, you'd have to at least quote where he has supposedly done so for me to take it, or your presumed agreement with it, seriously. I'm not going hunting for it.
See what happened there? You said that whether black people succeed or not is all about choice. I pointed out that choice is often restricted by circumstances. But no, you can't accept that. It's either all choice, or all circumstance with you. That's a false dichotomy you have there, I'm afraid. You ought to fix that. I suggest you try thinking about the matter out of the context of racial prejudice. Think, for example, about why some whiteys get ahead and some don't. Mind you, I appreciate that I can only lead the horse to water.
No, I actually said "culture affects choices", several times. So obviously I never said choice was the only determinant, nor that there was nothing that affected choices. So your little straw man, of a false dichotomy, is only deflection from the inconvenient fact that some people succeed from the same circumstances that others do not.
Again, like my example of the Appalachian value of education, some whites also don't get ahead because they make bad choices. If you want to call that an insurmountably restricted circumstance, again, that is belied by the fact that some succeed despite those same circumstances. So let's see if you can manage to address my actual argument this time, instead of your own deflecting straw man.
That kind of line is fairly pointless, when you make no references to any supposed facts that anybody has supposedly contorted. If your only aim is to insult, then so be it, but it becomes a little boring for me after a while.
Considering you only offered bare assertion in lieu of any facts at all...:
"You're misinformed. It's well documented and evidenced."
...I can only presume what faulty reasoning would lead you to such conclusions. I've already shown how the Bureau of Justice Statistics' National Crime Victimization Survey validates the arrest demographics, and arguing against that is outright victim blaming.
If there was an easy fix - and the necessary will to fix it, of course - then it would have already been fixed. Perhaps there is an easy fix, but I'm fairly sure you'd run a mile, screaming "socialism!" all the way, at the mere thought about what might be required.
Yet you can't tell me under what circumstances you would definitely say there was zero systemic racism. That's exactly how unfalsifiable hypotheses work. It can either be falsified or you're a garden variety crackpot. You have even argued against things being "non-falsifiable" yourself:
http://sciforums.com/threads/did-nothing-create-everything.162483/page-45#post-3611346
So it seems you're a hypocrite when it come to your favored political hypothesis (and when you presume any solution would require anything akin to socialism, it's easy to see why). You simply accept it without it being falsifiable. Would that be accepting it on faith?
All this tells me is that you have a very blinkered idea of what community means. And, again, it fits the type.
One other thing you might like to consider: not every community is a positive influence on the individual member. Your assumption seems to be that religious community, in particular, is a net positive for individuals and/or society in general. I'm inclined to disagree.
My sense of community is just larger than yours.
Considering studies of higher reported happiness, more charity, more moral behavior, etc., I'm pretty sure your atheism unduly colors your judgement.
No. I mean what I wrote, of course. Do you post this kind of thing hoping for some kind of applause, or is there some other reason? Self-congratulation, maybe?
Again, that was a reply to an equally vacuous statement of yours. Don't like it? Quit doing it. If you offer substance, I'll refute with substance.
You've lost me. Is this a claim that historical events can have no effect on present day circumstances? Surely not.
I didn't imply that either. Only that the onus would be on you to show that it does so, in the specific ways you imply.
Notice how your pornography example spans two of the moral categories (see that word "suffering")? My own concern about exposing children to pornography comes not from any desire to maintain children in a "pure" or "clean" state (in terms of knowledge and/or moral corruption), nor to protect children from something that some regard "impure" or "improper" or "unclean". My concerns, such as they are, lie in the likely harms that they may suffer as a result of exposure to pornography, both as children and in their future adult lives.
I actually don't understand why "purity" in and of itself is supposed to be morally virtuous. Maybe you can explain it. Also, what's the measure of "purity"? Who gets to decide what is pure?
I fear we're moving somewhat off the thread topic with this stuff, but I do find it interesting.
Unlike you, I understand that all the moral foundations are interrelated.
Sanctity/purity only exists to the extent that it seeks to stave off some future ill or suffering. You don't eat spoiled food because it could make you sick later. The disgust to such contamination only exists relative to the possible future harm. There is no independent belief in purity unrelated to a possible harm, as all the moral foundations have their roots in evolutionary psychology. Conservatives are just better at appreciating consequences. Since leftists have a higher threshold for disgust, they are likely to underestimate some sources of potential harm. Perhaps like the recent practice of raising "theybies" or allowing children to use puberty blockers that could lead to sterility.
As a leftist, I wouldn't expect you capable of understanding purity, just as the studies show. It's based on the evolutionary psychology of disgust, as a means to avoid hazards of food, disease, etc..
Who gets to judge others on whether they are "pure" enough to be members of the "in group", and what gives them that right?
Who's spanning two moral foundations (sanctity and loyalty) now? You must be on a hypocrisy kick lately.
Sorry. I assumed you had some understanding of the relevant theory; you talked like you did. The idea is that non-human animals lack the "purity" of human beings - often enough so to put them in a completely separate category of moral consideration. We see, for example, in the bible, that animals are regarded as property to exploit as we (humans) wish. You, yourself, have dismissed out of hand the suggestion than an ape might be a person, for instance, and I assume the same would apply to a dolphin or an octopus, let alone something like a mouse, a shark or a lizard.
Oh, you certainly made assumptions. Too bad they are faulty. Who ever said animals lacked purity? You do know that Jews used to sacrifice lambs expressly because they thought they had the requisite purity, right? Animals are not considered morally different due to purity. They are considered so due to their relative cognitive ability. The theological belief of stewardship would belie your claim that the Bible says animals are to be exploited. My dismissal of the personhood of an ape is solely based on cognitive ability. And you conveniently failed to quote what I said about my dog, because that obviously undermines this whole purity/personhood straw man of yours.
It certainly looks to me like you put human beings on a pedestal when it comes to God choosing sides. Do you believe human beings have immortal souls, Vociferous? How about your dog? If the human and not the dog, then how is your God not choosing sides?
I believe all life is immortal. And there's a long precedent of many religions believing that people can reincarnate into animals and vice versa. Even Christians will talk about dog heaven.
New concepts can often seem strange. Let it marinate a bit, this new idea of positive discrimination. It'll come to you eventually.
Yeah, your confused notion of positive discrimination, as noted by Baldeee, is strange. Too bad you don't seem capable of justifying it with anything but ignorant bare assertion.
It looks like you completely missed the point of that example. Hint: it wasn't about whether you have a problem with the existence of wheelchair ramps. Try to understand before shouting "straw man" quite so loudly. It can make you look a bit foolish. Interesting data from iceaura on the history of wheelchair access and the Disabilities Act, too, don't you think?
Legally, discrimination is unequal treatment in regards to a good, service, or access to public accommodation. And as Baldeee correctly explained to you, positive discrimination is active discrimination against one group for the benefit of another. Now I gather that you're trying to make some convoluted argument that businesses could somehow be discriminated against as a group, but to my knowledge, businesses have no civil right to profit by discriminating against some group, like the disabled.
Again, if you want to cite someone I'm ignoring, please quote them. At least if you want me to take the argument seriously. The ADA and it's amendment were signed into law by H.W. and W. Bush. And even if they weren't, who says I agree with every Republican argument in history? I identify as conservative.