Relativity - Synchronization and slow transport

Like I said before, this is a mathematical abstraction.
In practice, you make t as long as required to make the desynchronization as close to the limit as you desire.

Actually , in practice we do not work this way. I took the time in order to update theweb writeup in order to show how we are doing it in reality.



I don't see that it's splitting hairs, Tach. Bur more importantly, the point under discussion doesn't say anything about remote synchronization, such as is done for GPS clocks.

Turns out that the same exact approach for synchronization is used for the atomic clocks comprising UTC. It was also used for the verification of the clock synchronization between CERN and Gran' Sasso by the Opera group. What I'm trying to say, is that it is the operational way of doing synchronization via clock transport. Not that I am not even mentioning "slow".




What precisely do you disagree with?
That slow transport preserves synchronization in the initial rest frame?
Or that it doesn't preserve synchronization in a moving frame?

I have repeatedly explained that what I am objecting to is the condition added at the end of your sentence, that the clocks need to be initially at rest. More precisely, I have presented my objections to the condition: "they will not stay synchronized unless they were initially at rest."
 
Actually , in practice we do not work this way. I took the time in order to update theweb writeup in order to show how we are doing it in reality.





Turns out that the same exact approach for synchronization is used for the atomic clocks comprising UTC. It was also used for the verification of the clock synchronization between CERN and Gran' Sasso by the Opera group. What I'm trying to say, is that it is the operational way of doing synchronization via clock transport. Not that I am not even mentioning "slow".






I have repeatedly explained that what I am objecting to is the condition added at the end of your sentence, that the clocks need to be initially at rest.

Here is evidence to support your position.

Synchronization to the Washington Master Clock, at the nanosecond (billionth of a second) level, is achieved via Two Way Satellite Time Transfer.


http://tycho.usno.navy.mil/falcon.html


There are many links to prove the satellite clocks are continuously resynched.

If you were wrong, then this would not be necessary.
 
In [thread=110633]another thread[/thread], a poster mentioned using slow transport to maintain clock synchronization.

[post=2843216]Post 42[/post]
I pointed out that if two synchronized clocks are slowly separated, they will not stay synchronized unless they were initially at rest.

Tach disagreed, and a long argument ensued which I'm belatedly diverting into a new thread.

For reference, here are the most relevant expansions of the contested sentence:

[post=2843243]Post 47[/post]
To spell it out:

Consider two synchronized clocks at rest together in frame S.
One clock remains at rest while the other is slowly moved at velocity dv to particular distance L away.
In frame S, the resulting difference in synchronization can be arbitrarily small with an arbitrarily small separation velocity.
If you take the limit as dv approaches zero, the resulting difference in synchronization is zero.

Now consider two synchronized clocks moving at velocity v together in frame S.
One clock remains moving at v, the other clock slowly separates at velocity v+dv until it is a particular distance L away. dv is parallel to v.
Now, the resulting difference in synchronization can not be made arbitrarily small.
If you take the limit as dv approaches zero, the resulting difference in synchronization is nonzero.
​

Tach interpreted these scenarios as ([post=2843307]post 65[/post]:

...which of course led into a diversion about communication skills.

The next expansion was more formal:
[post=2843310]Post 66[/post]:
Two clocks, A and B, synchronized and colocated at $$t=0$$.

A moves at speed $$v + \Delta u$$.

B moves at speed $$v - \Delta v$$.

$$\Delta u$$ and $$\Delta v$$ are very small compared to $$v$$ and to c, but are not necessarily equal.
The clock velocities are parallel.

Now, at $$t = \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v}$$,
  • the separation between A to B is $$L$$.
  • $$\tau_A$$ has elapsed on clock A
  • $$\tau_B$$ has elapsed on clock B
  • The difference in synchronization is $$\Delta \tau = \tau_B - \tau_A $$

The quantity in question is this:
$$\lim_{\Delta v \rightarrow 0 \\ \Delta u \rightarrow 0} \left (\Delta \tau\right )$$

I maintain that the answer is a function of v and L, and equals zero if and only if either v or L is equal to zero.
​

And later analysed (the original post had some mistakes. Tach provided corrections, incorporated here.)
[post=2843741]Post 87[/post]
$$\begin{align}
t &= \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v} \\
\tau_A &= t/\gamma(v + \Delta u) \\
\tau_B &= t/\gamma(v - \Delta v) \\
\Delta \tau &= \tau_B - \tau_A \\
&= t/\left(\gamma(v - \Delta v) + \gamma(v + \Delta u)\right) \\
&= \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v}\left(\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2}\right)
\end{align}$$

I don't think there's anything stopping us from immediately taking one of the limits?
$$\begin{align}
\lim_{\Delta v \rightarrow 0 \\ \Delta u \rightarrow 0} \left (\Delta \tau\right ) &= \lim_{\Delta v \rightarrow 0 \\ \Delta u \rightarrow 0} \ \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v}\left(\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2}\right) \\
&= \lim_{\Delta v \rightarrow 0} \ \frac{L}{\Delta v}\left(\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - (v/c)^2}\right) \\
&= -L \frac{d}{dv} \ \sqrt{1 - (v/c)^2} \mbox{(Definition of the derivative)}\\
&= \frac{\gamma Lv}{c^2}
\end{align}$$
​

Let's try to do this one correctly (a detailed derivation is in the uploaded file). One can't take the limit as above and, more importantly, one needn't and one doesn't in practice. One can derive instead the exact expression for desynchronization as follows:

$$ \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v}(\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2})=\frac{L}{c^2} \frac{2v-\Delta v +\Delta u}{\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} + \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2}$$

One sees immediately that synchronization can be accomplished for any combinations of L, v, $$\Delta u$$ and $$\Delta v$$
provided that the condition $$2v-\Delta v +\Delta u=0$$ is fulfilled.

The expression $$\frac{L}{c^2} \frac{2v-\Delta v +\Delta u}{\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} +\sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2}$$ gives the exact desynchronization between clocks for transport at any speed, as viewed from an arbitrary frame. The above is , of course, valid for flat spacetime only. The same exact way, I could work out the formula for desynchronization in curved spacetime.

In practice, as shown in greater detail in the linked file there is absolutely no reason for $$\Delta u->0$$ and/or for $$\Delta v->0$$ , one only needs to compensate for the above desynchronization which can be calculated beforehead. The linked file gives examples for how things are done in practice, for even more complicated cases (variable transport speed being one).
 
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The above link referenced two papers. I don't have access to the BaIley paper. It is in the Nature archives.

I found the other and what seems more relevant paper. The link is in the quote below.

Actually, you are not pointing to the correct link. The correct link is here

.

This seems to prove that linear velocity and acceleration act independently, both slowing down the clock rate.

Quite the opposite, if you read the abstract, you would have understood that the author proves that frequency change is independent of acceleration to accelerations up to $$10^{16} g$$ and a precision of up to one part in $$10^{13}$$. The frequency change is a function of speed only. The relativity FAQ website is also very clear on the subject.
 
Actually, you are not pointing to the correct link. The correct link is here



Quite the opposite, if you read the abstract, you would have understood that the author proves that frequency change is independent of acceleration to accelerations up to $$10^{16} g$$ and a precision of up to one part in $$10^{13}$$. The frequency change is a function of speed only. The relativity FAQ website is also very clear on the subject.

May I assume you have programmed in the acceleration/gravity issue into the clocks before launch?


Otherwise, you are wrong.


I think you are saying, given the pre-launch programming, your statement is true.
 
Let's try to do this one correctly (a detailed derivation is in the uploaded file). One can't take the limit as above and, more importantly, one needn't and one doesn't in practice. One can derive instead the exact expression for desynchronization as follows:
Mathematically, we can take the limit.
In practice, it's true that you can't take infinite time to transport a clock.
But it's also true that transporting a clock at 300m/s over 3000km will give you a result within a nanosecond of the limit.
So the mathematical limit is a good practical approximation.

One sees immediately that synchronization can be accomplished for any combinations of L, v, $$\Delta u$$ and $$\Delta v$$
provided that the condition $$2v-\Delta v +\Delta u=0$$ is fulfilled.
Tach, you obviously can't meet that condition with slow transport and high v.

It's right there in the post you quoted:
Pete said:
$$\Delta u$$ and $$\Delta v$$ are very small compared to $$v$$ and to c.

If v is fast, and dv+du is slow, then the desynchronization is approximated by $${\gamma Lv}{c^2}$$.

Do you agree?
I really need a straight answer on that - I'm worried that we're completely misunderstanding each other.

In practice, as shown in greater detail in the linked file there is absolutely no reason for $$\Delta u->0$$ and/or for $$\Delta v->0$$ , one only needs to compensate for the above desynchronization which can be calculated beforehead. The linked file gives examples for how things are done in practice, for even more complicated cases (variable transport speed being one).
Link?
 
Actually, you are not pointing to the correct link. The correct link is here

Thanks I fixed it!

Quite the opposite, if you read the abstract, you would have understood that the author proves that frequency change is independent of acceleration to accelerations up to $$10^{16} g$$ and a precision of up to one part in $$10^{13}$$. The frequency change is a function of speed only. The relativity FAQ website is also very clear on the subject.

That's why I used the introduction. The author actually cites and describes two experiments, in the paper. Neither one was set up to prove or disprove what the paper presents in the introduction and a little less clearly in the conclusion.
 
Tach, you obviously can't meet that condition with slow transport and high v.

That is the whole point, there is absolutely no reason for the "slow" in "clock transport". You need to give up on the $$\Delta u->0$$ and $$ \Delta v ->0$$. Did you read the linked file?

If v is fast, and dv+du is slow, then the desynchronization is approximated by $${\gamma Lv}{c^2}$$.

There is no use for approximation , when I showed you the exact answer.
There is no use for "slow" du+dv , when, in practice, experimenters use any du+dv. You need to learn how to let go of the $$\Delta u->0$$ and $$ \Delta v ->0$$. There is no physical reason for it.


The same place where it has always been.
 
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Thanks I fixed it!



That's why I used the introduction. The author actually cites and describes two experiments, in the paper.

Actually, he describes a lot more experiments in the paper.


Neither one was set up to prove or disprove what the paper presents in the introduction and a little less clearly in the conclusion.

The experiments were designed to measure something else, indeed. Yet, the author correctly points out how the collected data can be interpreted to prove his point.
Actually the paper is quite clear and the conclusion repeats the statements in the abstract.
 
That is the whole point, there is absolutely no reason for the "slow" in "clock transport".You need to give up on the $$\Delta u->0$$ and $$ \Delta v ->0$$.
:bugeye:
This discussion is about a claim I made about clocks that are slowly separated.

I notice you didn't answer this:
Do you agree that if v is fast, and dv+du is slow, then the desynchronization is approximated by $${\gamma Lv}{c^2}$$?

That is the question under discussion. The claim you challenged was explicitly about slow separation.

Yes, I agree that you can separate moving clocks and maintain synchronization if you separate them at the right speed.
But, I never claimed otherwise.


There is no use for approximation , when I showed you the exact answer.
Yes, you gave the same answer as I gave in the OP. Thanks.
Incidentally, I think there's a minor typo in the denominator of your rearrangement:

$$ \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v}(\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2})=\frac{L}{c^2} \frac{2v-\Delta v +\Delta u}{\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2}$$

Should be:
$$ \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v}(\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2})=\frac{L}{c^2} \frac{2v-\Delta v +\Delta u}{\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} + \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2}$$


The same place where it has always been.
Thanks. Please post that link each time you refer to it, or at least have it in the same thread.
 
Actually, clocks are NOT affected by acceleration AT ALL.

This was your statement that began the side discussion.

And it is on the face of it completely false. Why? First, because acceleration is a special case of constantly changing velocity. If a velocity affects the rate a clock runs at, then acceleration must also.

What it appeared that Sherwin was driving at was just that and the association between acceleration and a clock from the perspective of the equivalence principle. Here again, the second reason. If the equivalence principle is valid, then so must the affect of acceleration on a clocks rate be valid. We have proof that a clock's location in a gravitational field does affect its rate and the affect of acceleration cannot be distinguished from the affect of gravity.

The experiments were designed to measure something else, indeed. Yet, the author correctly points out how the collected data can be interpreted to prove his point.
Actually the paper is quite clear and the conclusion repeats the statements in the abstract.

You are right on both counts here with the exception, in how you interpret the conclusion. His conclusion was nothing more than a null result. It seems as though he used reference to two papers, for the sole point of presenting the Introduction. That does not invalidate anything in the introduction.

The last sentence below, from the conclusion, says only that the two experiments could be adequately explained without acceleration-dependent effects. Not that they prove there are no acceleration effects.

In any case, the experiments to date appear to be adequately explained without recourse to any acceleration-dependent effects.​

I'll put the muon paper on my list and if I ever get caught up on my reading, I may just pay for it. That one sounded more interesting to me.

I think this has been enough of a side track for now. I doubt we are going to reach agreement.
 
The same place where it has always been.

From the link:
Tach said:
What happens if we abandon the idea that the two clocks need to move at speeds tending to zero? That is, can the clocks still be synchronized if we abandon the notion of "slow" in the clock transport? The answer is "Yes"
Agreed.

So what happens if we consider the actual claim you challenged?
That is, can the clocks still be synchronized if we keep the notion of "slow" in the clock transport?
The answer is "No".

If two synchronized clocks are slowly separated, they will not stay synchronized unless they were initially at rest.
 
:bugeye:
This discussion is about a claim I made about clocks that are slowly separated.

I made every effort to explain things to you: there is no room in physics for $$\Delta u->0$$, $$\Delta v->0$$. How do you think the Opera people drove the 730 km separating Geneva from Gran' Sasso? At 1m/h? At 2m/h? More importantly, what do you think happened when they arrived at destination? they simply set the clock equal to the transported clock?


I notice you didn't answer this:
Do you agree that if v is fast, and dv+du is slow, then the desynchronization is approximated by $${\gamma Lv}{c^2}$$?

I did not answer because you are belaboring an irrelevant point. If you make
$$\Delta u->0$$, $$\Delta v->0$$ in the general formula I gave you, you obviously get $${\gamma Lv}{c^2}$$ which is quite useless for any practical purpose.

That is the question under discussion. The claim you challenged was explicitly about slow separation.

Slow separation does not mean separation at zero speed. I have worked out the exact formula for you, so your claim is false under all circumstances.







Yes, you gave me the same exact answer I gave you. Thanks.
Incidentally, I think there's a minor typo in the denominator of your rearrangement:

$$ \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v}(\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2})=\frac{L}{c^2} \frac{2v-\Delta v +\Delta u}{\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2}$$

Should be:
$$ \frac{L}{\Delta u + \Delta v}(\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} - \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2})=\frac{L}{c^2} \frac{2v-\Delta v +\Delta u}{\sqrt{1 - ((v-\Delta v)/c)^2} + \sqrt{1 - ((v+\Delta u)/c)^2}$$

It is correct in the uploaded file. I made a transcription typo in my post here. I corrected it.
 
More from the link:
Tach said:
So, generations of students have been told that the correct fix is to make ∆u − > 0 . Hence the “slow” in the “slow clock transport”. While mathematically correct, the approach is totally unphysical since it results into an infinite transition time for clock C to reach B.
For example, if the Opera people at CERN in their attempt to synchronize the clocks
between Geneva and Gran’ Sasso would have travelled infinitely slow the 730km
separating the two locations, they would have ended taking an infinite amount of time.

Tach, I'm sure you wouldn't call newtonian mechanics "totally unphysical" just because it's a low velocity limit for relativistic mechanics.
Just as you yourself use SR as a flat spacetime limit for GR.

The same applies here - As I noted before, transporting a clock at 300m/s over 3000km will give you a result within a nanosecond of the limit. So the mathematical slow transport limit is an excellent physical approximation.


Also, the only reference to clock transport I can find in the OPERA paper is about transporting clocks within the LNGS facility, i.e. between the LNGS official UTC source at the surface lab, the OPERA master clock in the underground laboratory, and the actual sensors. A total distance of a maybe 10 kilometres, at speeds of maybe a few metres per second.
 
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I did not answer because you are belaboring an irrelevant point. If you make $$\Delta u->0$$, $$\Delta v->0$$ in the general formula I gave you, you obviously get $${\gamma Lv}{c^2}$$ which is quite useless for any practical purpose.
As useless as Newtonian mechanics.
 
The same applies here - As I noted before, transporting a clock at 300m/s over 3000km will give you a result within a nanosecond of the limit. So the mathematical slow transport limit is an excellent physical approximation.

Nope, 1.5 microseconds. You are off by more than three orders of magnitude. Hopefully this helped proving the futility of your "Newtonian" approach to yourself.
 
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Nope, 1.5 microseconds. You are off by three orders of magnitude.
Try again. I was wrong, by not by that factor.
Move a clock 3000km at 300m/s. How much does it lose?

And how much did the OPERA guys need to adjust their clock after much shorter and slower transport?

Hopefully this helped proving the futility of your "Newtonian" approach to yourself.
Right, I'll never use newtonian physics again.
An error of 1 in 10^10 is clearly unacceptable. :rolleyes:
 
Try again. I was wrong, by not by that factor.
Move a clock 3000km at 300m/s. How much does it lose?

Not what you think, I gave you the formula in the link

$$\frac{L}{v}(1- \sqrt{1-(v/c)^2})=\frac{L}{2v}(v/c)^2=5ns$$

You are still way off.

And how much did the OPERA guys need to adjust their clock after much shorter and slower transport?

2ns. You are completely missing the point, you can't get the correct result if you insist on your approach. But , never mind, carry on.

Right, I'll never use newtonian physics again.
An error of 1 in 10^10 is clearly unacceptable.

You meant an error of $$\frac{5ns}{60ns}$$ as in $$\frac{1}{12}$$, right?
 
Not what you think, I gave you the formula in the link

$$\frac{L}{v}(1- \sqrt{1-(v/c)^2})=\frac{L}{2v}(v/c)^2=5ns$$

You are still way off.
5ns is correct. You were only out by a factor of 300.

Wrong. How fast and how far did you base that on?

You meant an error of $$\frac{5ns}{60ns}$$ as in $$\frac{1}{12}$$, right?
No, I meant an error of 1 microsecond in 10,000 seconds.
Except now we know it's 5 ns in 10000s.
1 in 10^12.
And that for transport at 300m/s.
Something more reasonable, like 30m/s, gives you 1 in 10^14 or so.

The error in OPERA's timing for the longest transit tested by clock transport was 1 in 40996.

So, yeah, I think they'd find the low velocity approximation acceptable.


But aside from this silly sidetrack about the uselessness of limiting approximations (like low velocity, or flat space), I notice that you haven't addressed the pertinent points posted previously ([post=2845140]post 52[/post].
 
5ns is correct. You were only out by a factor of 300.

Yes, I forgot to divide by v.




No, I meant an error of 1 microsecond in 10,000 seconds.
Except now we know it's 5 ns in 10000s.

Err no, it is 5ns in 60 ns because the clock desynchronization is off by 5ns.
Why do you cling to this hack when you've been given the exact formulas?
 
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