I mean the following.
Except that none of that has anything to do with

it has nothing at all to do with the general law

I mean the following.
Is the statement, "It is shown that the force exerted on a particle by an ideal fluid produces two effects", supposed to meany that there is an ideal fluid that has been put to the test?"It is shown that the force exerted on a particle by an ideal fluid produces two effects: i) resistance to acceleration and, ii) an increase of mass with velocity. ... The interaction between the particle and the entrained space flow gives rise to the observed properties of inertia and the relativistic increase of mass. ... Accordingly, in this framework the non resistance of a particle in uniform motion through an ideal fluid (D’Alembert’s paradox) corresponds to Newton’s first law. The law of inertia suggests that the physical vacuum can be modeled as an ideal fluid, agreeing with the space-time ideal fluid approach from general relativity."