prometheus said:A vector is coordinate dependent (if you don't believe me write a general vector down and perform a coordinate transformation).
I don't think so. The coordinate representation of a vector in a particular basis is dependent on the chosen basis, but the vector itself is not dependent on any coordinate system.
As a simple example, consider a two-dimensional length vector attached to the origin in the (x,y) coordinate system. Obviously, it is represented as being composed of particular (x,y) coordinates - the coordinates of its "head" (the tail being fixed at (0,0)). Now consider a second coordinate system (x',y') that is rotated with respect to the first, and with co-located origins. The given vector obviously has a different coordinate representation in the new system, but the vector itself hasn't changed at all. To change the vector, we would have to change either its length or the direction it points in space. Going to a new coordinate system does neither of those things.
Hi Tach,
If you agree, I'd like to change the tracking list to rename the current issue as Definition of rods T1 and T2, and add Definition of points A and B, so we can focus on rods and points separately.
I can't edit the opening post any more.
Moderators, Administrators, help!
Is it possible to turn off the edit time limitation for one post?
Otherwise, can someone please edit the opening post of [post=2863332]Debate: Lorentz invariance of certain zero angles[/post] to:
- Change "1.2 - Definition of T1 and T2 (Active)" to "1.2 - Definition of rods T1 and T2 (Active)"
- Add 1.3 - Definition of points A and B (Pending)
Thanks.
Your response was that you don't understand it's purpose, which doesn't answer the question asked.Pete said:Do you agree that it defines the inertial rod T1, which is tangent to P at t=0 in S?
Hi Tach,
I don't quite agree after all - can I please amend my "Oh crap, wait" post to explain?
Christ guys, 36 posts in the debate thread and you're "almost" done with step 1 of 4?
Pete is attempting the impossible, (to get Tach to see one of his own errors), therefore this could take awhile. Although you did hand Tach his arse in pretty short order in the matte wheel debate,
Actually, it is the other way around, RJ handed his own arse to himself, I merely helped him along. Then , he threw a fit and threw the toys out of his pram. The same way you did it yourself, repeatedly.
Actually I was thinking of this thread:
http://sciforums.com/showthread.php?t=111130
He had you in check-mate by post #5.
Uhh, Tach, you do realize that I successfully debated the topic as I understood it, right? Ignoring for a moment whether or not the goal posts were moved after the debate began, does it make sense to you that I would use $$f_0$$=$$f_{s'}$$ in my proof unless I thought it bolstered my argument? Why the hell wouldn't I have simply used the argument that I laid out in the thread that Neddy Bate linked to...also written by me...and also completely devastating to your misconstrued beliefs?Actually, it is the other way around, RJ handed his own arse to himself, I merely helped him along. Then , he threw a fit and threw the toys out of his pram. The same way you did it yourself, repeatedly.