I believe the Roman presence in England should be given greater emphasis. Unlike the peoples of Iberia, France, etc., when the Romans conquered England the local people did not lose their language and adopt Latin (French, Spanish, etc.). Instead, they kept their original language (a Germanic tongue I believe, having already displaced the Celts), and added the Latin vocabulary.
You've got this a little muddled. Please review my earlier posts. The people who lived in south Britannia when the Romans invaded were a Celtic tribe, the original, genuine
Britons. They spoke a Celtic language which is poorly attested but is now called
Brythonic. There were no Germanic tribes in the British Isles yet. Apparently Welsh, Cornish, Breton and Cumbric started out as dialects of Brythonic and eventually diverged into separate languages, so what we know about Brythonic is primarily deduced by working backward from them. It was influenced by Latin, as expected.
We cannot compare the linguistic fate of Roman-occupied Britannia with Roman-occupied Gallia or Iberia because shortly after the Romans left the people they had conquered were conquered again, by the Germanic tribes (Angles, Saxons and Jutes) who sailed over to help themselves to the incipient civilization that the Romans abandoned. The Anglo-Saxons marginalized and displaced the native people so at that point there was a discontinuity in the culture and other ethnic characteristics of the people, including their language. The modern so-called "Britons" retain some of the DNA of the original authentic Britons (although some fled to Brittany or took shelter in Wales and Cornwall, and presumably many died), but they are culturally and ancestrally more Germanic than Celtic.
The Britons did not have a chance to decide whether to give up their language and adopt Latin. The Anglo-Saxons came in and replaced both the people and the language with Anglo-Saxons.
Thus, English is primarily a teutonic language in structure, though primarily Latin in vocabulary.
If you just tally the words in a dictionary, of course you'll find tens of thousands of scholarly, political, religious, scientific and other disciplinary words of Latin origin, although these days I'd say that most of them were coined as "Modern Latin" neologisms such as "petroleum" and "infrastructure," rather than borrowed from the Romans. The Normans overlaid a
superstratum of French words that pertained to the business, government and domestic dealings of the aristocracy, which is why the cow, calf, pig or deer raised by the farmer or gamekeeper is called beef, veal, pork or venison once it leaves the butcher shop.
But our basic wordstock is clearly Germanic: pronouns (we, they), conjunctions (and, or), prepositions (to, of), humble activities (go, think), body parts (head, foot), and places (field, house). Nonetheless there has indeed been some astounding French influence into our everyday vocabulary, such as use, question, very, face and second.
The scots of the day were giving the Romans such a hard time . . . .
The Scots didn't arrive from Ireland until after the Romans had left. The people who harassed the Romans were the Picts, and it's anybody's guess who they were since the Romans never established the kind of relationship that would have facilitated study of their culture and language. Some archeologists see reason to assume they were a Celtic tribe, but for all we know they could have been the last remnants of the earlier wave of
Homo sapiens migrants who built Stonehenge.
I'm sure the wall had profound influence on the development of the English language.
I doubt it. The Anglo-Saxon of
Beowulf is clearly a form of Old German. The most profound influence on English was the Norman Invasion. Both grammar and vocabulary underwent wrenching changes as Anglo-Saxon evolved into the Middle English of Chaucer. When the Norman rulers assimilated and dropped French in favor of English in the 14th century, it then underwent wrenching phonetic changes, such as the bizarre shift in Modern English of cardinal A from AH to AY, I from EE to IGH, etc. This echoes the changes that were taking place in French, whose modern vowels are equally distorted from the Latin originals. (
Me becomes
moi, which is then pronounced "mwa.")
Later, as you know, the French occupied England (1066 AD), but again, they only added vocabulary to the language, and the local people continued to speak the native tongue, until they drove out the French centuries later.
They did not drive the Normans out. There has been no severe discontinuity in English aristocracy and government since the Normans took over. The French simply assimilated, just as the Mongols did in China. The story "Tess of the D'urbervilles" touches on that issue. A once aristocratic French family fell on hard times, lost its estate, and eventually even its name was anglicized to Derbyfield.