All consciousness' are identical,...
Not granted.
...which makes all consciousness one.
Does not follow from the premise. Certainly it is true that if two things are the same thing then they must be identical, but it does not necessarily follow that if they are identical that they must be the same thing. Leibniz, in his
identity of indiscernibles states that if two objects/entities have all the same properties then they are the same thing, but there are plenty of challenges, not the least of which is that location itself distinguishes objects. So a consciousness in one location is thus different, and distinct, and not identical, to another.
So, no, the conclusion doesn't follow, but is instead a philosophical assertion.
That is why all conscious creatures perceive the same reality.
There are at least a couple of ways to reject this:
First, as a conclusion/explanation (from the "that is why..."). This is not granted. If we
do perceive the same reality it needs to be more than merely asserted that this is because of the reason you claim. After all, if we
do perceive the same reality, we do so whether your explanation is correct or not.
Second, the idea that "all conscious creatures perceive the same reality" needs unpacking: do you mean that they all share the same external world, or do you mean that they have the same perceptual content? Some animals see a wider range of colours than us. Some hear far more. Some are blind. So, what exactly do you mean, because meaning one thing and it simply defaults to the first error, and meaning the other would make it demonstrably false.
Because consciousness is the same in all lifeforms.
So you assert, but this is not granted.
The thought-generating mind is not at all unlike the universe being generated by a 2-dimensional information structure. It's all one grand thought man.
What do you think this means?
If my understanding is correct Buddhism holds that the entire material world is an illusion. There's a certain mystical component to the idea that all is one. Buddhism, make no mistake, may not have a creator-god, however it maintains that all is maya or illusion.
Okay, your understanding would seem to be wrong. Buddhism does not assert that it is all an illusion, at least not in the sense that it doesn't exist. They certainly think it exists, just not in the permanent way that others do. They teach that it is all impermanent, and made up of a network of impermanent processes, always changing, processes coming into existence and then fading out.
When Siddharta reached spiritual enlightenment he was offered the choice by the god of death to either stay in enlightenment or live as a normal human being. He chose the latter because he believed that one should not live in that state amidst the suffering of the many.
Relevance?
Again, consciousness is the only thing that is permanent. Not matter. If, as you say, Buddhism denies this, then it is Buddhism that is false/ illusion/ chimera/ appearance. However, if I am correct, then Buddhism and the Tao both hold that existence is an illusion.
First, Buddhism holds that consciousness, like all things and processes, are impermanent.
Second, it depends what you mean by "illusion". A mirage is an illusion, but that does not mean that it does not exist, only that we don't see it for what it truly is. Yes, Buddhism teaches that existence is an "illusion" but only in the sense that we don't perceive it correctly. They don't teach, for example, that nothing exists, and certainly not that nothing but consciousness exists.
A little logic would dictate that the universe is finite because of the non-existence or nothingness that permeates all things.
???
Feel free to set out that logic, by all means. At the moment it is word-salad.
Again, existence must distinguish itself from its absence or non-existence in order to exist.
This is muddled.
Distinguishing things is what processes, or concepts, or thinkers do. It is not something that existence itself does. A rock exists whether or not anyone distinguishes it from non-existence. So you're muddling ontology with epistemology.
You are also treating existence as something that performs actions. It isn't. It is a property, or a
condition, of things.
Certainly one can say that one must be able to distinguish existence from non-existence to be able to talk about it meaningfully. But existence itself need not do anything.
That is why space and time only apply to existence as opposed to non-existence.
??? Given the muddled previous sentences, this can not be said to follow.
Consider it this way; if non-existence is infinite and eternal then spacetime would not qualify as the non-existence or nothingness. But since space and time break up into a seething quantum foam then space and time can be considered to be existence as opposed to non-existence.
Who said non-existence is infinite?
An empty set is an empty set, not one with an infinite elements.
The rest is word-salad.