I have a question. Is evidence showing the existence of three-dimensions only evidence against the existence of any other dimensions?
On evidence for a three-dimensional object, apart from the obvious fact we observe three-dimensional objects in our minds, is the inverse-square law. For those who don't know about it, take a surface of a sphere, given as 4πr² and also when we have a ratio A2, A1
$$I_{1}/I_{2}=N/A_{1}/N/A_{2}=A_{2}/A_{1}=4pir2^{2}/4pir_{1}^{2}$$
then the following equation is solved by saying that the second surface is twice the distance from the source $$I=k/r^{2}$$ and is found to be in inversely proportional to the square of the distance.
$$I= r_{1}^{2}/(2r_{1})^{2}xI_{1}= r_{1}^{2}/(4r_{1})^{2}xI_{1}= I_{1}/4$$
And this is considered as proof of three dimensions. Since there is no experimental evidence to suggest extra dimensions, then isn't that evidence alone that there exists no other?
On evidence for a three-dimensional object, apart from the obvious fact we observe three-dimensional objects in our minds, is the inverse-square law. For those who don't know about it, take a surface of a sphere, given as 4πr² and also when we have a ratio A2, A1
$$I_{1}/I_{2}=N/A_{1}/N/A_{2}=A_{2}/A_{1}=4pir2^{2}/4pir_{1}^{2}$$
then the following equation is solved by saying that the second surface is twice the distance from the source $$I=k/r^{2}$$ and is found to be in inversely proportional to the square of the distance.
$$I= r_{1}^{2}/(2r_{1})^{2}xI_{1}= r_{1}^{2}/(4r_{1})^{2}xI_{1}= I_{1}/4$$
And this is considered as proof of three dimensions. Since there is no experimental evidence to suggest extra dimensions, then isn't that evidence alone that there exists no other?