the term is anit-semite which is not related to semite here look: Again anti-semite: As you can see just because it has “Semite” in there it does not apply to all Semites only Jews. This my deify logic but it the way the word is used in proper English, and just because the word is used and created by westerners that’s a ad Hominem fallacy and the plain point is that it used in a western language it only apply as such. Also anti-arab does not have the same force yet because Arabs tend to attack the west and are not seen as goody-two-shoe victims like the Jews, if the Arabs could manage to sucker up to the look-at-me-suffering act like the Jews they might stand a better chance. I said I only pity you if you believe such crap that you spouted. My pity does not change me argument stagiest and has not effect on you so it is not an issue of weakness or resolve.