Haven't they been confirmed by experiment? ...the Casimir effect, a small force between parallel metal plates caused by the fact that there are slightly fewer closed-loop histories that can fit between the plates compared with the region outside. Hawking
Closed loop histories refers to quantum field theory in flat Lorentian space time and not the CTC of GR, Lorentz-violating theories or quantum gravity. While you can interpret the Feynman diagram to talk about it as a sum over closed curves, they are not time-like. Hawking explicitly included discussion of FTL which also makes them not time-like.
but general relativity would be fine if ctc's didnt exist right? what would happen to ctc's at the quantum level?
thing in mind you are connected to your past a picture is connected to its past if you are connected to it,(past) then it stands : (that)it is connected to you it is my wild postulation that some psychological diety is controling how much realization that our small psychies are allowed . i rationalize this by the comparison that thar is an order to everything thar is a government to enything that is a government to society thar is a government to the astronomical bodys thar is a governing ecosystem on earth. Thar is law to define the nature of the chemical cosmo'...It is know that the majority of a human minds capibility is scarcly used , i would wonder about that grey area between your ears maybe its not that grey maybe its capible of being tapped into like a pc with partitions? an animal is born with instinct ...supposedly humans are not is this because that humans are later to the evolutionary changes? i would say not. Thar are religions aimed at the proubability of thar being underlyeing programs that effect our behavior in uncertain ways (scientology)....I finalize by saying something is accessing time but as far as our lifes effect, i would question if we are even? the main element of hierarchy here!
Hi, buddieboy, I found your odd grammar and spelling made what you wrote difficult to follow, but I did pick up on two things: This is incorrect. There are a couple of threads in the forum where this has been discussed before. The human brain is fully used. It is true that from second to second only parts of it are active, but that is a quite different matter. There are no hidden powers waiting to be tapped into, no underutilised capability. Who told you this? This is also wrong. Completely and utterly wrong.
Wolv's questions about causality do they violate cause and effect at the quantum level or is it preserved?
What does: "violate cause and effect" mean? Do you know? Or what does: "cause and effect is preserved" mean??
Either Causality or Locality must be sacrificed in the EPR paradox. Take your pick. Many Physicists do not like to admit this. (My personal interpretation sacrifices Causality...)
This is not the first thread where you have demonstrated problems formulating good questions. For example, is this meant to be a question about currently accepted quantum field theory or experimental results? If we started discussing either, what level of mathematical discussion or experimental design could we communicate to you? But as of this point our most widely accepted theories indicate that all physics is locally Lorentz-invariant and no experiment has contradicted this. This is significantly stronger than "preserving cause and effect" and it suggests that you have been exposed to little physics education. As such, a review article like http://relativity.livingreviews.org/Articles/lrr-2005-5/index.html will be difficult for you to make sense of. So not only can disturbances in quantum fields not propagate from future to past, they can't even escape the "future light cone" of their origin. So says our best experiments and the theories tested by them.
what i mean is do particles violate causality where the effect is in the past and the cause in the future.
i am a bit confused because another member on here told me that particles at the quantum level violate causality.What do you mean by ''But as of this point our most widely accepted theories indicate that all physics is locally Lorentz-invariant and no experiment has contradicted this''? does it mean causality has not been violated?
Wolv1: In other words, rpenner says you're too stupid to understand the answer (which he gives as being cause and effect is indeed violated), and Vkothii says you're too stupid to even understand the question you're asking! Aren't forums like this great? Please Register or Log in to view the hidden image!
"So not only can disturbances in quantum fields not propagate from future to past, they can't even escape the "future light cone" of their origin. So says our best experiments and the theories tested by them" this mean's that causality is not violated?
what evidence do we have that particles violate causality? is there any evidence that particles go back in time?
That's not true. It actually violates classical intuition, not locality or causality. Did I? Emphasis added.
thanks rpenner,i guess im not the stupid one after all.there would be paradoxes if particles violated causality.
"Stupid" was not a term I used or meant to apply to you. But as King Ptolemy was once told: "There is no royal road to [the totality of math and physics]." So you have to put some real effort into it. At a minimum you have to understand quantum mechanics and special relativity at the level of a physics baccalaureate before you are ready to tackle quantum field theory of particles where two important theorems proved from the postulates are that disturbances propagate with velocity = c, and that information propagates from past to future, never the reverse. Six years past there would you be ready to understand current research in either loop quantum gravity or some area(s) of string field research. It is annoying to want to learn more than you can in a lifetime. As some blogger observed: Learning makes one feel stupid. Now that's a paradox worthy of the name.