************* M*W: This has always puzzled me. If Jesus existed, he would have spoken Aramaic, a dialect of ancient Hebrew. Yet, the NT was written in Greek and not in the language Jesus actually spoke. (I'm not implying here that I believe Jesus existed other than hypothetically for this post). I've always been uncomfortable with this difference in languages, especially if Jesus were god. It seems odd that the story of Jesus (which allegedly includes his own words) would be written in any other language than what he spoke. Any comments on this? Thanks!