Why not divide numbers with null?

Discussion in 'Physics & Math' started by ProCop, Nov 21, 2002.

  1. On Radioactive Waves lost in the continuum Registered Senior Member

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    have you taken any LSD recently? mind blowing revelations they are
     
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  3. Merlijn curious cat Registered Senior Member

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    Re: PS

    that's what you been saying all along... what is wrong with you.?

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  5. HallsofIvy Registered Senior Member

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    From ProCop:
    "I think I can now identify the reason why 0 is different from the other numbers. It is in the way 0 gets its value. An example:

    There are 2 persons X,Y. You can identify each of them positively: eg. X is young, Z is old or negatively: X is not Z and Z is not X.

    All numbers (except 0) have positive identification. 1 is one (mental) object, 2 is two (mental) objects etc. 0, the absence of (mental) objects is identified nagatively. 0 gets its value only from other numbers (which get their value from the world of (mental) objects) not from the referencial world of objects. "

    A paraphrase of the above for those who haven't figured it out yet:
    "I understand nothing about mathematics but I like to hear
    myself talk."
     
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  7. ProCop Valued Senior Member

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    RE:

    Unfortunately also non-mathematicians use and think about the numbers. They are not as much rule-minded as maths and tend to approach the numbers in the way they aproach other systems. Specialy language has a lot common with numbers eg. it uses the same sign (often in different form) .. In laguage there is sometimes more implied than it precisely says. I have simply tried to have a look at 0 in its precise and implied form (can maths numbers have an implied meaning?).

    But after this course of nul-value searching I still cannot answer with a reasonable meassure of certainty the following question:

    you have a square A side-size a = 4 cm

    you have a square B side-size b = 0 cm

    How many B squares can be put in square A?


    Answer 1 none (square B does not exist)

    Answer 2 infinity (there is a potential of the square in 0)

    Answer 3 undetermined (I don't really know..)

    I will probably have to live with that...
     
  8. empennage Soccer King Registered Senior Member

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    69
    Re: RE:

    Answers 1 and 2 could be considered correct.

    Answer 1 - As you said, there is no square B, so it can't be fit into square A.

    Answer 2 - If square B has sides that are infitesimally(sp?) small and therefore approach zero but do not actually reach zero, then one can fit an infinite number of squares in the Square A.
     
  9. ProCop Valued Senior Member

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    1,258
    Re:empennage

    It seems that your answers contradict the following post from James R:

    Naturally only if you accept that the case above (squares A and B) is a sort of "graphic translation" of the formula 4/0. Then the only possible answer (according to James) is answer 3 - undetermined (I don't really know..)
     
  10. empennage Soccer King Registered Senior Member

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    Re: Re:empennage

    Actually, I don't think it contradicts hims at all. If there is an area A it is possible to make up that area by taking the SUM of infintesimally small areas. It does not contradict what James R was saying because he was not dealing with addition.

    BTW, the concept of adding infintesimally small pieces to make up a whole "object" is basically what an integral is in Calculus.
     
  11. On Radioactive Waves lost in the continuum Registered Senior Member

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    985

    thats not what the discussion is about. its about 0!!!!!!!!


    4/(the SUM of infintesimally small areas) yes that can be done



    4/0 no sorry cant be done
     
  12. James R Just this guy, you know? Staff Member

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    <i>Naturally only if you accept that the case above (squares A and B) is a sort of "graphic translation" of the formula 4/0. Then the only possible answer (according to James) is answer 3 - undetermined</i>

    That's the right answer to this problem.
     
  13. ProCop Valued Senior Member

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    1,258
    Re:empennage/question

    The concept "infintesimally small area" is unknown to me.

    Can you arive at this concept reasoning that if you have a square B side-size b = 0 then the diagonal of the square B must be d >0 so it principally represents "infintesimally small area"?
     
    Last edited: Nov 28, 2002
  14. On Radioactive Waves lost in the continuum Registered Senior Member

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    985
    does a Sierpinski Carpet "exist"? although it may appear to, the answer is no.

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  15. Merlijn curious cat Registered Senior Member

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    Sure Sierpinski's carpet (or whatever name you give the thing) exists. If only n my mind.

    But what does that have to do with the curent subject?
     
  16. On Radioactive Waves lost in the continuum Registered Senior Member

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    985
    just a little somthing to get them thinking.....afterall, the carpet is based on an infinite number of iterations
     
  17. James R Just this guy, you know? Staff Member

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    Mathematicians often use infinitessimal quantities. In fact, the whole of calculus is based on them, via the theory of limits.

    Many mathematical arguments start with something like:

    "Let epsilon be a positive quantity infinitessimally greater than zero. Then..."

    Given a square of side length a, how many smaller squares of side length b will fit inside it?

    Answer: a<sup>2</sup>/b<sup>2</sup>

    What happens as b approaches zero? Answer: the number of squares approaches infinity. But if b <b>equals</b> zero, the answer is undefined, because then we'd have a<sup>2</sup>/0.
     
  18. ProCop Valued Senior Member

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    1,258
    RE:James R

    My appology if I am going to hurt somebody's feeling, but this "infinitessimallity" seem to me to be simply a trick to replace 0 with as-close-to-nul-as-possible number. In other words you are replacing a non-countable null with a countable one...
     
  19. HallsofIvy Registered Senior Member

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    I don't think you will hurt the feelings of any except those who care about correct spelling!

    "Mathematicians often use infinitessimal quantities. In fact, the whole of calculus is based on them, via the theory of limits. "

    is not true. Only those mathematicians (and its a minority) who
    regularly work with "non-standard" analysis use infinitesmals.

    Indeed, the "theory of limits" was developed specifically to avoid
    infinitesmals.
     
  20. On Radioactive Waves lost in the continuum Registered Senior Member

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    985
    yes Procop, I remeber my calculus professor defining epsilon as "the smallest number greater than zero". But it's your job to learn about limits, not ours to teach it to you. You want to learn, then go learn it. Ask appropriate questions when you get stuck.
     
  21. James R Just this guy, you know? Staff Member

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    HallsofIvy:

    Please give me a definition of the first derivative of the function f(x) which does not involve infinitessimals.
     
  22. empennage Soccer King Registered Senior Member

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    ZING!!

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  23. Han Baumer Member Registered Senior Member

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    f'(x) =
    lim ( f(x+h)-f(x) ) / h
    h->0


    for continuous f.
     

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