Discussion in 'SF Open Government' started by Giambattista, Aug 3, 2010.
The title says enough.
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Give me a few examples and I'll tell you whether they qualify.
jews stole palestein land and moved them to the gaza strip.
jews were responsible for europe's inflation and inspiried hitlers rise to power.
jews now have high ranking positions in the american government and its agencies.
jews play the victim role of WW2 if u accuse them of warcrimes or illegal international BS.
i wouldnt say this stuff is hate mongering, in the same way as stating the statistical facts about black ppl being criminals compared to white ppl. its just stating the obvious.
the problem being when such statements(if true) are being used without context or having conclusions drawn from them that aren't logical
I think those all qualify as hate speech and anti-Semitism.
you would. anything that paints jews in anything less than pure, innocent, and only a victim is hate speech and anti semitism to people like you. 3 of the things he listed are at least partially true.
That's usually how hate speech works.
Umm, well, you see, it's like this: people in the ban list are routinely there for these offences, but I'm guessing the offending post/evidence is generally always excised and banished along with the author, so forgive me for not having any examples to illustrate with.
Perhaps you could provide some examples of hate?
EDIT: apparently, most of the time the examples disappear. There happens to be a thread about it now.
Or maybe I have mispoken and the offending text is not removed?
How? Hate speech works in what way? Are you referring to PJ's statement about Israel? Explanation please.
And here I wasn't going to wade into this miasma...
I have to agree with spidergoat here.
What pjdude seems to be missing is that, in all of those statements of atheist's, one could replace "jew(s)" with any other term used to designate an identifiable group (e.g., Americans; Asians; Republicans;heterosexuals;haemophiliacs...) and they would still each qualify as 'hate speech'.
It's called generalization, or stereotyping. Outside of a context, and lacking any contextual argumentative support, those kinds of blanket mis-characterizations are necessarily unduly discriminatory.
I think I can agree to this and if this becomes the definition then I really could report a lot of people, if I so choosed.
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I would say, when one party is judged differently from others, it is both hate speech and antisemitism. The laws of hatespeech must apply equally to all, then it ceases being hate speech directed at any one party.
None of that: that's hate speech.
A joke is hate speech?
Hate-speech. Because Jews have never stolen anyone's land in all their 4000 year history - despite being cast amoung all the nations. Please give another examplem than that applying to the Jewish homeland itself? And if you single out Jews and not address the lands stolen by Muslims - it is antisemitism.
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Is that a crime? America, FYI, was discovered by Jews - its a zionist plot. Why do we not find any Jews in Mecca?
Were they also victims - or is that not applicable?
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The above is hate speech.
Truth whch can be evidenced cannot also be hate speech.
Joke or not, it mis-characterizes those to whom it was directed right?
So a true characterization, regardless of form, cannot amount to hate speech?
Not really, if anything it was a joke commenting on member's hysterical/stereotypical beliefs about Islam and Muslims, of which are subjected to hate speech nearly if not everytime they are mentioned on this forum and it can even be seen in this very thread.
Q. How did Pakistan, Jordan, Iraq, Egypt and Saudi Arabia become sacred islamic soil?
A. 30 Barrels of oil.
Check it out - none of those states are based on historical borders, most were created in secret recently, and all of them flaunted the rights to the original inhabitants: Egypt, for example, belonged to the Copts, and parts of Iraq belonged to the Kurds. Of course, Jerusalem and Hebron never belonged to the Jews - thus a Saudi dwarf put up signs:
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