One thing that slightly bugs me is the usage, particularly in the US but also here in the UK, of the word 'got'. Now for me, 'got' is the past tense of 'get'. However, it seems a lot of people use 'got' as if it were the word 'have'. 1) "I have a car" 2) "I got a car" 3) "I have got a car" (From my usage) 1 indicates that the speaker owns a car - no argument here. 2 refers to the instance when the car was actually acquired. To me this implies that the car was acquired recently relative to the time the speaker is talking about and the speaker is drawing focus to the actual event of acquisition. 3 roughly means the same as 1. It actually means 2, but projects the acquisition further in the past. "I had got a car" would be the usage of '3' when talking about a instance in the past, where the acquisition of the car was further in the past. Does it annoy anyone else when people say 'got' when they clearly mean 'have'?