English is my first language, just to make clear. By stating ''If they were real, we would all see them'' must imply ''to be real, we must all see them'' The first statement is the same as the second statement in practice. The first statement clearly states that for something to be real, everyone would need to see it. The second statement is the same, implying that for something to be real again, everyone must see them. The two statements are simply rephrased but still holding the quintessential meaning. Does anyone object that the two statements are synonymous with each other (and no I don't mean synonymous in pure text, I mean synonymous in the meaning.)
I don't want it taken out of context either, so I should explain what context the statements regarded. Concerning the ghost phenomenon, one person claimed that ''If they were real, we would all see them,' in which I said that logic must imply ''to be real, we must all see them.'' I thought it was pretty straightforward, you can't imply for something to be real, we would all see them. It surely is the same as for something to be real, we must all see them.
