I made a mistake... I was only thinking of reals between zero and one, so all numbers chosen were to the right of the decimal point. Having infinite digits to the left of the decimal point poses a problem, in that the number selected will be infinite... and I think that we need to guarantee that the selected number will be finite. So it looks like selecting a random real from a uniform distribution of all reals might indeed be a hypertask... which is puzzling to me if randomly selecting from a subset of the reals in a given range is only a supertask. So, to the mathematicians out there - what substantial difference is there between the set of reals that can be selected by randomly choosing infinite digits, and the set of all reals? And why does this seem to make a difference in the number of tasks required to select a random element from the set? (Does it make a difference?) Do the two sets have the same cardinality? I think the first set is bounded... does that make a difference?