I made no such claim. Your ascription of such a claim to me is a basic error in reasoning. I pointed to one or two of the multiple basic flaws in an argument you were attempting, in particular that the study you were posting did not support it. The evidence for that claim was provided by you, in the link to the study. This is the problem: you don't actually know what you yourself are arguing, or why, and one major reason (not the only one) is that you are taking for granted - assuming - the existence of relevant biologically based classification schemes for the human species that match your particular US Western sociological races. You can't assume that, and make sense. It's a consequent, not a premise. One wouldn't. So any time you have an equivalent quantitative and qualitative definition of such a human "group" and the specific disorder, physical manifestation, or stretch of genetic code, you are interested in, including (for example) the comparative frequency of its occurrence, post it. As with the "European Jews" (not the group you intend, btw - you are referring not to all Jewish people in or formerly in Europe, but to an ethnic subgroup), you will be dealing with a sociological group. Something like a family, or a tribe, or a town. Not a biological race.