Inertia and Relativity

Why are you trying to follow any link from there? I was just reminding you what we were talking about, so you can post those calculations you made that lead to your conclusion in post #110. Remember: you are the one making the claims here, so it's you who has to provide the evidence (calculation in this case).

 

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Well, follow this link https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electron_magnetic_moment . You can get value of \(L \) from this link.

As per my equations \(E=mc^2=hf=Iw^2k_2=Lwk_2 \). Consider \( L=Iw=mr^2kw\) or \( rw=\frac{L}{mrk}\). Considering values of m and r for electron, you can check the value for \(rw \).

 

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And when you do that, what value do you get for the velocity with which the electron rotates?

 

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I have given you my equation. You can do the calculation.

 

No, I shall not. You are the one making the claim; you have the burden of proof. Or are you now admitting you didn't actually do this calculation, and your statement in post #110 was unfounded?

 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Electron_magnetic_moment ; From this site consider "Spin magnetic dipole moment" section. We can consider \(L=S=\frac{\hbar}{2} \).

From my equations I have observed \(mr \) is constant and \(mr=\frac{4\hbar}{c} \).

Considering our earlier equation for \(rw \), we can write \(rw=\frac{L}{mrk}=\frac{\hbar}{2}\frac{c}{4\hbar}\frac{1}{k}=\frac{c}{8k} \).

So tangential speed of spinning electron \(v_t=rw=\frac{c}{8k} \). From this we can see that \(v_t<c \)

 

Unless \(k\leq\frac{1}{8}\); what was \(k\) again?

 

\(I=mr^2k \)

 

And what is its value (for an electron)?

 

For constancy of \(mr \) or \(mr=\frac{4\hbar}{c} \); this paper can be seen https://www.academia.edu/35753977/Proton_to_Electron_Mass_Ratio_Equation

 

Please explain why the effective torque arm radius of an electron is equal to its physical radius.

 

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_moments_of_inertia . From this list of moment of inertia, we can say \(k>\frac{1}{8} \).

 

(Next time, could you please provide a better link, or more direction where exactly to find what you are referring to?)

What value did you use for radius? Remember, the electron's radius has been measured to have an upper bound of \(10^-7\) fm!

 

That is matching with the equations. \(m_pr_p=m_er_e \) or \(\frac{m_p}{m_e}=\frac{r_e}{r_p}\simeq 1836 \)

 

Here actually I used the \(mr \) value, which is constant. From my equations also this can be observed.

There may be a measurement error.

 

That doesn't answer the question. Why is the effective torque arm radius of an electron is equal to its physical radius? Please proof this assertion that you are making.

 

Is \(mr\) constant for all types of fundamental/non-composite particles?

Unfortunately for you, there is not.

 

That is the radius measured from spin axis.

 

From my equations, it is becoming so.

 

And how does this relate to the proton being "a vortex in the yet to be defined super fluid aether"? Because that's what your source is about; see: http://phxmarker.blogspot.nl/2017/11/proton-radius-puzzle-solved.html