Ethics of anonymous sex stories

Are you suggesting the writer does not own their own experiences?

The writer is not borrowing from others. The writer is writing about their own experiences in a work of fiction.

You also did not respond to:

 

Person B would be able to identify themselves in the piece if it was fairly distinct and particular and would be deemed an invasion of their privacy.

Anyone who knew both of them or their involvement could suspect the identity of person B if say the story is published within a particular timeline for example.

The moment people start writing about their own experiences and labelling it as such (or fail to depict that this is a fictional story or piece), suspicion will arise about those they had a sexual history with. Those people may feel as though their privacy has been invaded.

There is also the possibility of a murkier aspect and depending on the subject matter, can make the entire thing a horror story.

 

As far as I can see, it doesn't become a violation of person B's privacy unless or until the element of anonymity is lost. If nobody can connect or is connecting persons A and B to the account in question, then how could person B's privacy be said to have been infringed?

I suppose that C is exploiting A's account to achieve C's own sexual gratification. Supposing A's account is an accurate account of B's sexual behaviour, then C is indirectly using part of B's personal history for C's own gratification. However, I think it would be tenuous to try to draw the conclusion that C is therefore exploiting B.

Don't tell me you can't tell the difference between a scenario in which B is anonymous and one in which B is clearly identifiable (?)
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From a moral perspective, if you're concerned about B in this scenario, maybe a good place to start would be to ask whether, and in what way(s), B is harmed by the actions of A and/or C.

Suppose B becomes aware of A's account and is upset that A would publish that account without B's consent. In that case, B suffers an emotional harm. Since it was in A's power to prevent that harm, then A has probably acted immorally towards B. But that was not the question you asked. You asked whether A has violated B's privacy. As long as B remains unidentified and unidentifiable, then I can't see how A could be said to have violated B's privacy. In reality, of course, there may be many ways in which the identity of B might eventually come to light, even if A has every intention of maintaining the anonymity. If, for whatever reason, B's identity becomes known, then further moral questions will arise as to the extent of A's moral culpability in publishing the account without the consent of B.

In C's case, according to your scenario, C is merely using the account for the purposes of his or her own sexual satisfaction. I can't see any way in which C's masturbation could harm B, at least as long as B is unaware of it. C has no way of establishing that the account is factual rather than fictional, so I don't see how C could be blamed for violating or exploiting B, unless you are of the opinion that anybody who uses pornography for their own personal sexual gratification is commiting some kind of moral wrong merely by doing that act.