Ah, so the no true Scotsman fallacy, huh? So how do you explain the subjective experience of emotion prior to, and the motivation for, such expression? What is this feeling which may prompt an emotional expression if not already an emotion? You are conflating a communication cycle with emotion where there is insufficient reason to do so. You've even said that the perceived expression doesn't need to be objectively distinguishable from neutral behavior. This puts emotion squarely in the subjective realm, where your "true emotions need to be shared" definitely does not apply. So what about hate? What is it that a person exerts an effort to inhibit the expression of? If hate doesn't exist until expressed, what is the target of such self-control?