0 / 0 = ?

Can you define that undefined of 0/0
and
if 2 lines connect in point x and the point x is the 0 point named origin do we have 0 = 1 or just 0 = 0 meaning that the 2 lines do not connect ?

 

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no you cant. Its undefined, actually its infininant. Anything devided by 0 is infininant

 

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anc cos0=1 no ?

 

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0/0 makes as to no odds, as much as 00/00 would be a same paradox, unless there is a limit on either side of the equation; for instence, one infinity can be bigger than another.

 

Well, you can define it in a limit.

So, for example,

\(\frac{\sin x}{x}\)

gives 0/0 for x = 0. However, the limit of this expression, as x --> 0 is well defined, and it is 1. So if you can write your 0/0 as a limit of a smooth function, then you can define it however you need.

 

Fuck me!
I thought maths was an exact science, you guys make it sound like politics ( I can make it sound like whatever the fuck suits my agenda).

 

Well it is... Your definitions have to be exactly consistent.

 

O.K. but really, only pollies and mathemagicians can make 0=1.

 

Sure, but only by taking inconsistent steps.

Example.

a = b.

\((a-b)(a+b) = 0 \Rightarrow (a+b) = \frac{0}{a-b} = 0\)
\((a+b) = 0\)

Therefore a = -b.

But how, you may ask??? I divided by zero in the first step. (In the same way, one can construct a proof that 0 = 1, I just couldn't remember the steps to take to get this result off of the top of my head.)

 

Ben, you should be a lawyer.
Go and buy yourself a cheap pinstripe suit and start making the serious money you deserve.
p.s. I had an accountant with your flair for creativity, I loved that man!

 

Nah...lawyering seems like a pretty shitty existence (no offense---I'm sure there are lawyers who think that being a grad student is a pretty shitty existence).

 

You're right, the lawyering thing of defending the indefensible is a bit rich but get the suit anyway.

 

Since any number*0=0, 0/0 should be any number. In the beginning I think zero divided by zero and created infinite numbers and it also created negative numbers so that it could remain zero. Zero is like the Joker card. It's zero, but it can be any number.

 

In other words, undefined.. (0/0)

 

x = 1

Therefore: x² = x

x² - 1 = x -1

Factorising: (x - 1)(x + 1) = x - 1

Dividing through: x + 1 = 1

Substituting: 2 = 1
is that ok?

 

Oh come on. Look at the third line. You have already shown that x^2 =1, so re-write line 3 as 1-1=1-1 and the " mystery disappears.

As for 0/0 we can say that zero stands for nothing. So, if you divide nothing by nothing you have done nothing. i.e., no calculation is involved

 

0/0 can be any number and about the line 4 what is the substitution there difrent if line 3 gives the same result ?

 

How could 0/0 produce a number?
Is it that zeros goes into zero forever or is it there is zero operation to begin with?

0/0=1?
Could you show me how 0=1 and walk me through it?
Is it possible that 0=Infinity?
Or 1=Infinity?
Or maybe???(0=1)=Infinity?

 

(x - 1)(x + 1) = (x - 1)

At this point, your argument is to divide the (x -1) on the right side of the equation by the (x - 1) on the left side of the equation. The problem with this is that there is a restriction on x (=/= 1) because it's a denominator, meaning it can't equal zero. If you went through with the division, you would be dividing by 1 - 1, which is zero, thus making it undefined. When the problem becomes undefined, then your proof is invalid.