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Hermitian conjugates, please help.
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Epsilon Prime's Avatar Epsilon Prime
Over Epsilon (60 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 12:19 AM
 #1
Reply With Quote   Epsilon Prime is offline
i've been trying to do some _simple_ (i guess) find-the-hermitian-conjugate problems and i'm already having some trouble =/

so, for Q = x in
< f | Q g >; f, g functions of x in C[-inf, inf]

the hermitian conjugate Q# such that

< Q# f | g > = < f | Q g >

is x right? so Q = x is a hermitian operator itself?

what about Q = d/dx?

so far i've got

< f | Q g> = g f* - < Q f | g> = < Q# f | g>

(using integration by parts)

but what is Q# ??

thanks for your time.
any help appreciated =)
lethe's Avatar lethe
Registered Senior User (2,008 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 01:38 AM
 #2
Reply With Quote   lethe is offline
Originally Posted by Epsilon Prime
i've been trying to do some _simple_ (i guess) find-the-hermitian-conjugate problems and i'm already having some trouble =/

so, for Q = x in
< f | Q g >; f, g functions of x in C[-inf, inf]

the hermitian conjugate Q# such that

< Q# f | g > = < f | Q g >

is x right? so Q = x is a hermitian operator itself?
Right, although your domain looks suspicious to me (it's very important that you consider the domain for these problems). See below.

what about Q = d/dx?
This isn't even eligible to be Hermitian (it's missing a factor of i), so we expect it to be anti-Hermitian. In other words, we expect Q<sup>&dagger;</sup> = -Q

so far i've got

< f | Q g> = g f* - < Q f | g> = < Q# f | g>

(using integration by parts)

but what is Q# ??
very good. You haven't made a mistake, but the mapping you have defined here Q# is not a linear operator, and therefore can't possible be the Hermitian adjoint (notice that 0#&ne;0). There is a theorem that every linear operator has a Hermitian adjoint, so why doesn't this theorem work in this example? The problem is that the theorem only holds in Hilbert spaces, and the space C[-&infin;,&infin;] is not a Hilbert space. You have to make some kind of restriction to your space, like restrict yourself to periodic functions, or functions which vanish at infinity appropriately quickly. whatever it is you do, will make that term vanish above, and you will have Q<sup>&dagger;</sup>=-Q

Can you see why your space is not a Hilbert space? Can you imagine why this is a necessary condition for the existence of the hermitian adjoint operator?

thanks for your time.
any help appreciated =)
sure
Epsilon Prime's Avatar Epsilon Prime
Over Epsilon (60 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 01:51 AM
 #3
Reply With Quote   Epsilon Prime is offline
thanks lethe.

so to be in Hilbert space the functions must be square-integrateble? (or complete inner product space...still a bit unsure what that means)

and C[-inf, inf] is definitely not the case.

mm okay i see that now.
but for square-integrateble functions, you're doing < f | Q f > and i see that why f must be in Hilbert space...but
i guess that means Hilbert space doesn't just include the square integratebles huh...okay mm

mmm....and isn't Q = d/dx a linear operator?
thanks.
sorry i'm slow.
lethe's Avatar lethe
Registered Senior User (2,008 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 02:55 AM
 #4
Reply With Quote   lethe is offline
Originally Posted by Epsilon Prime
thanks lethe.

so to be in Hilbert space the functions must be square-integrateble?
yes, that makes it an inner product space.
(or complete inner product space...still a bit unsure what that means)
complete means that every Cauchy sequence converges. We achieve this by making sure we're using Lebesgue integrals, and equivalance classes of functions that are equal almost everywhere.

and C[-inf, inf] is definitely not the case.
bangarang. This space is probably (or can be made) complete, but inner product, ain't gonna happen.


mm okay i see that now.
but for square-integrateble functions, you're doing < f | Q f > and i see that why f must be in Hilbert space...but
i guess that means Hilbert space doesn't just include the square integratebles huh...okay mm
The Hilbert space L<sup>2</sup>(R) is made up solely of (equivalence classes of) square integrable functions. Why do you think it includes something else?

mmm....and isn't Q = d/dx a linear operator?
thanks.
yes, it's a linear operator. what isn't linear is the map that takes Q to Q# as you defined it above. Observe that under your definition, the adjoint of the zero operator is not zero, so this operation # can't be linear.
sorry i'm slow.
no sweat. Feel free to ask if you're still not getting it.
Epsilon Prime's Avatar Epsilon Prime
Over Epsilon (60 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 03:16 AM
 #5
Reply With Quote   Epsilon Prime is offline
mmm.....
for < Q# f | g > = < f | Q g >
Q# is not Q's adjoint?
lethe's Avatar lethe
Registered Senior User (2,008 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 03:30 AM
 #6
Reply With Quote   lethe is offline
Originally Posted by Epsilon Prime
mmm.....
for < Q# f | g > = < f | Q g >
Q# is not Q's adjoint?
well, this isn't how you defined Q# above. recall, you said:

Originally Posted by Epsilon Prime
< Q# f | g> = g f* - < Q f | g>
This defines a mapping Q# which depends on Q, but this mapping is not the Hermitian adjoint (which doesn't exist on this domain). Nor is Q# linearly (or even anti-linearly, which is more appropriate here). Consider the case Q=0. If Q# were linearly related to Q, then we would expect Q#=0 as well. But obviously all you have to do is choose as test functions f and g so that f(&infin;)g(&infin;)*&ne;f(-&infin;)g(-&infin;)* and then Q#&ne;0. The point is, if you don't take care of your boundary conditions, you don't have a Hilbert space, and you don't have an adjoint either (the two facts are of course related).
Epsilon Prime's Avatar Epsilon Prime
Over Epsilon (60 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 03:44 AM
 #7
Reply With Quote   Epsilon Prime is offline
oh hmm....
i thought i was just working out the < f | Qg > and trying to set it equal to < Q# f| g >

mm =/
i guess what i was trying to ask was, what is the adjoint of d/dx....if it has one?

oh well....let me think about this tomorrow...
thanks for all your help!
lethe's Avatar lethe
Registered Senior User (2,008 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 08:20 AM
 #8
Reply With Quote   lethe is offline
Originally Posted by Epsilon Prime
oh hmm....
i thought i was just working out the < f | Qg > and trying to set it equal to < Q# f| g >

mm =/
i guess what i was trying to ask was, what is the adjoint of d/dx....if it has one?

oh well....let me think about this tomorrow...
thanks for all your help!
think about it, good. the answer is of course already given somewhere in this thread, you know that right? now you just need to think about why it's true.
Epsilon Prime's Avatar Epsilon Prime
Over Epsilon (60 posts)
Old 01-10-05, 10:14 AM
 #9
Reply With Quote   Epsilon Prime is offline
ah alright. just woke up.

seems like i've already worked it out....as it states
and now i get it....haha that took me a while =_=

thanks lethe!
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