1m/s^2 or Bust?

Discussion in 'Pseudoscience Archive' started by Prof.Layman, Aug 31, 2012.

  1. Prof.Layman totally internally reflected Registered Senior Member

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    Say an object is traveling at 1m/s^2. The question is how long can it travel at this speed? Someone might think that once it starts going 300,000 km/s that it could no longer go 1m/s^2 because of the speed of light barrier. But then we would have to assume that it started out from a state of rest in order to determine that. But then how is 1m/s^2 different than 1m/s^2 if I said that it had already traveled at 1m/s^2 for say an hour. Couldn't it slow down and say that it is only going 1m/s for a while, then asumme it is at rest and then pick up and get back going to 1m/s^2? I think an object could travel at 1m/s^2 for an infinite amount of time. I don't think there is a limit to how long something can stay in the same state of acceleration.

    Then what about mass increase? Well, if I assumed that I was at rest then traveled at 1m/s^2 for a while, I would feel a little pressure at the back of my chair, but would I actually feel my weight increase as this happened for a longer duration? I don't think I would feel an increase in weight, after all I could slow down to 1m/s and then say I was traveling at a constant speed with no increased value of mass because it was equivalent to me being at rest! I think for the whole duration of the trip I would only detect a mass increase that would remain constant for the whole duration of the trip that would equate to me only traveling 1m/s^2.

    Also, I don't think this would allow someone to travel as fast as a photon. I don't think it would allow them to even come 1m/s closer to the speed of light, as they would measure the speed of light to be 300,000 km/s faster than them the whole time they traveled at 1m/s^2. After all how hard could it be to make sure that you go 1m/s faster than you where going before? And then relative to what? Should an object hit an invisable barrier because he has gone 300,000km/s faster than another object, even though he still measures the same velocity of the speed of light?
     
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  3. Aethelwulf Banned Banned

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    Just do it like this...

    You have an object of mass moving at a velocity with a specific momentum

    \(Mv = P\)

    The momentum of any object... in your words...

    ''The question is how long can it travel at this speed?''

    Is for as long as the vacuum expands, unless the object is effected by an outside force. That is the beginning and end of your question.
     
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  5. Aethelwulf Banned Banned

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    ''Then what about mass increase? ''


    Ok... more questions... strangely mixed with others... Use a binomial expansion.
     
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  7. Aethelwulf Banned Banned

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    ''Also, I don't think this would allow someone to travel as fast as a photon. I don't think it would allow them to even come 1m/s closer to the speed of light, as they would measure the speed of light to be 300,000 km/s faster than them the whole time they traveled at 1m/s^2. After all how hard could it be to make sure that you go 1m/s faster than you where going before? And then relative to what? Should an object hit an invisable barrier because he has gone 300,000km/s faster than another object, even though he still measures the same velocity of the speed of light?''

    lost ya.
     
  8. Prof.Layman totally internally reflected Registered Senior Member

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    Say two objects where traveling at a relative speed of 1m/s of the speed of light. They both then assume that they are at rest because they are traveling at a constant speed, and they don't really notice each other. If one of the objects decided to increase his speed by 1m/s, then he would be traveling at a relative speed of the speed of light. Then should he feel a force overcome his motion of changing by 1m/s because addition of velocity wouldn't truely allow him to reach this barrier? It seems like addition of velocity could start to act like a force that prevents even the slightest ranges of motion just because there is something out there that is traveling at a fast relative speed. So then since we can travel at 1m/s without feeling any forces limiting us of our speed, does that mean that nothing is traveling 1m/s less than the speed of light?

    I think if you take the concept of every object traveling at a constant speed is able to say that it is at rest literally then there shouldn't be a speed of light barrier, because then a state of rest could be seen as just a nudge short of the speed of light. Then I think that all frames should be treated equally and that just because something is traveling at a fast relative speed that for that object everything should act the same way as if it was at a state of rest. It shouldn't feel the acceleration being cut short by what would be allowed by addition of velocities. Any object should be able to change from a state of constant motion into a state of acceleration the same way as if it was traveling at any relative speed. Otherwise there would have to be a sort of absolute rest, where acceleration is completely unhindered by the speed of light barrier and then faster speeds would be hindered more from the process. So then since every object measures the same speed of light, then no object has actually came even 1m/s closer to that speed, it is unattainable because spacetime dialates to prevent you from even coming one step closer, then saying that an object could even come close to the speed of light would be nonsense.
     
  9. Prof.Layman totally internally reflected Registered Senior Member

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    I meant how long can it travel at this speed before it hits the speed of light barrier. Since there is no absolute rest, then there would be no way to know how long it is allowed to travel at 1m/s^2. It would always have to be that it travels at 1m/s^2 relative to another object that is assuming that it is at rest. But, then any object that is traveling at a constant speed can assume that it is at rest, then the duration of how long something can travel at 1m/s^2 would be completely dependant on the observer. You would have to decide, okay, now how fast is rest really? Two objects traveling at relative speeds would not agree on how long a third party could accelerate at 1m/s^2. Because they would assume that it just can't go 300,000km/s faster than them, that would be two different amounts.

    I am doing away with the two objects and just saying that one object is traveling at a relative speed close to 300,000km/s, and he thinks that he is at rest even though it could be equally valid that he is the one traveling at this fast relativistic speed. So then, does he measure an effect acting on his acceleration that prevents him from traveling 1m/s faster even though he is assumed to be at rest?
     
  10. Prof.Layman totally internally reflected Registered Senior Member

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    982
    I think the speed of light barrier is in the time dialation equation itself. It measures distances and times in relation to the speed of light. Scientist measure it to travel at the same relative speed regardless of the Earths relative motion, Michelson-Morley Experiment. I don't think the experiment has been proven wrong, by detection of gravity waves or the mass of the Earth itself, and is still text book. But, I did a calculation on the amount of time dialation of an object under constant acceleration.

    t'=t sqrt(1-((vi+vo)^2)/4c^2)

    So, I think the relation between instantaneous velocity doesn't change because time increases due to an increase in speed. The difference between the two velocities is what mostly determines the observered time of an object in motion. It seems the four keeps the addition of these two velocities in check.
     

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