Bay of Bengal Holocaust

Discussion in 'The Cesspool' started by madethesame, Dec 28, 2014.

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  1. madethesame Banned Banned

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    Multinational companies don't die easily, likes of EAST INDIA COMPANY.
    They looted billions, trillions dollar worth gold and diamond from India.
    And I don't blame, I am exposing the company.
     
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  3. Bells Staff Member

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    So what does the then defunct East India Company (in India) have to do with it?

    There are a lot of reasons for that famine. Lower crop yield for one, some hoarding by the wealthy Indians and the feeling of privilege and class, India not sending food to the region and actually blocking food from being sent there, the British sending other food to soldiers who were fighting the Japanese in Burma and to Europe.

    And yes, the East India Company was defunct. Unless you have absolute proof that the East India Stock Dividend Redemption Act of 1873 was false, we can assume and know that it ceased to operate in India from that point on. We know this because there was a fairly big revolution which led to the Act in the first place. So unless you have absolute proof that that they continued to exist and operate in an official capacity in India after the Act, stop now.

    And this is the last time I am going to warn you. Stop spamming this thread with multiple replies to the same post, especially when such replies appear to consist in some part of woo and other parts conspiracy theories. You can edit posts to add things to it. But spamming it with the same thing, to the same comment over and over again is not acceptable.
     
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  5. madethesame Banned Banned

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    It is a fact that Bengal was connected with modern railways, road and ships, with this all facility how can Bengal's people can die.
    People's are the vehicle were confiscated, even bullock carts.
     
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  7. Bells Staff Member

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    The Indian Government and then Indian officials, merchants and even police officers blocked food from reaching the area. This is fact. That coupled with many other factors, led to the man made famine. But many quarters are to blame. Including the Indian Government.
     
  8. madethesame Banned Banned

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    Why you think that a single paper would mater when their is worth trillions gold available to loot.
    Do you think million people die is a conspiracy. What is the problem in my multiple replies ?
    A sane person can see the time of replies and can figure out that it is not ranting.
     
  9. madethesame Banned Banned

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    Of course Indian Government too. I am not anti-white or any other. The food was blocked by British, The Indian government did nothing as they were too were on pay roll of British and that multinational company.
    "Mahatma" Gandhi, the deluded " Great personality " too did nothing. Otherwise he would dance on his favorite song Non-Violence when aggressive Indians would try to flee British. He after his non-violence dance would send millions of Indian soldiers too die for Allies fighting Nazis.
    This was NOT the first time , Bengalis were forbidden to plant rice. It happened in 1769, causing a great famine killing more than 10 million Bengalis. --and history was just repeating itself. Warren Hastings was found guilty in 1770 and was censured verbally, to proclaim British Justice to the world..

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    At that time it was vindictive retribution to the argumentative Bengali , who refused to cultivate Opium , Jute and Indigo on their rice growing lands. people cant eat opium, jute and indigo , right?


    Still that government of gandhi's dynasty is ruling the country.
     
  10. Bells Staff Member

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    You are quoting the same thing over and over again in multiple responses. Just quote it once and type up your full response to it.

    Secondly, you have no proof that the Company continued in an official capacity in India after the Act. We actually know they did not because the British Government then took over. The Company was no more in India.

    Thirdly, you are blaming the wrong people and you are also discounting the effects of the famine in 1940/1941, due to crop failures and crop diseases which occurred then and then again until 1943. There was a shortage of food.

    No, the Bengal region was not prevented from planting crops or food. That is patently false.

    The food was blocked by the Indian Government and then traders and Indian officials.

    And once again, unless you have proof that the East India Company was still operating in India after it was made defunct by Statute many years prior, please stop as this is bordering on a conspiracy theory which is entirely unproven.

    You do understand that the Japanese were breathing down India's neck at the time?

    False.

    There were multiple crop failures and large portions of crops were washed away in tidal waves after cyclones in the lead up to the 1943 famine. Coupled with an influx of refugees and a small portion sent to help feed the Indian Army, and then food being blocked from entering the region by India's Government and then traders and local authorities in neighbouring provinces, that played a big part in the famine itself.

    They were not forbidden from planting rice. Most of the crop were either destroyed or disease ridden in the lead up to the 1943 famine.

    Not really.

    Different circumstances this time.

    Huh? Hastings was acquitted..
     
  11. Kittamaru Ashes to ashes, dust to dust. Adieu, Sciforums. Valued Senior Member

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    I have moved thread to a more appropriate sub forum... Conspiracies
     
  12. madethesame Banned Banned

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  13. madethesame Banned Banned

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    the reality is bit alien, isn't it ?
     
  14. Kittamaru Ashes to ashes, dust to dust. Adieu, Sciforums. Valued Senior Member

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    I am seeing less "reality" and more "unsupported supposition", hence why it was moved.
     
  15. madethesame Banned Banned

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    okay.
    reality is reality, it won't change. No matter what is written in wackypedia, or by glorious historians who pleased their masters.
     
  16. Kittamaru Ashes to ashes, dust to dust. Adieu, Sciforums. Valued Senior Member

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    Indeed, reality is what it is... linking to graphic pictures of the dead and some strange blog with a fetish for the eccentric won't change it either.

    You have been asked for proof, and you have not shown any - as such, this is little more than some kind of conspiracy theory.
     
  17. madethesame Banned Banned

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    I have written that if crop died due to disease why British won't help ?
    India has traditions of free meals, and people supply food to the needy, therefore the deaths could have been stooped but again government wouldn't allow. More over Bengalis were made to cultivate cash crops and the area was well connected with roads and railways to sell the product. So any incident of famine could be stopped in beginning via bringing food through roads and railways, but government won't allow.
    if the local landlords had horded food then neighbouring states would have helped but help was not allowed.
    i have written indian political parties were just puppets. People like mahatma gandhi who preached non-violence were sending millions of indians to die fighting nazis.
     
  18. Kittamaru Ashes to ashes, dust to dust. Adieu, Sciforums. Valued Senior Member

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    Do you have any proof of any of this, or is it simply more conjecture?
     
  19. Bells Staff Member

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    It would help if you did not mix up the different famines in the Bengal regions because you appear to be confusing yourself and mixing the two up and blending them together.

    In the 1943 famine, which you have said is the one you are talking about, the Bengali were not prevented from planting food crops. That happened in the 1770 famine, not the 1943 famine that is being discussed in this thread.

    Also, the East India Company were not involved in the 1943 famine. How do we know this? Because they did not exist in India during that time because the organisation was dismantled and made defunct by an Act of Law in India.

    I have already explained how and what happened in the 1943 famine and what happened in the lead up to it. Your response is to mix it with the 1770 famine and incorrectly try to claim the circumstances from that famine were the cause of the 1943 famine.
    There were a range of factors involved in the 1943 famine, some of which involved the rich and those in positions of authority hoarding food and also blocking any more food from entering the region. So millions of poor people literally starved to death. In the years prior to 1943, crop failures, bad weather and cyclones which led to tidal waves washing away large portions of the crop, black spot disease, and lower yield crops meant that the stores for following years were small to non-existent, couple that with the Japanese invading Burma and Bengal not being able to import food from Burma, as was the custom, there was not much food. What little there was was hoarded by the higher caste Indians. The Indian Government then refused to allow any food to enter the region by way of imports - Bengal imported a lot of its food - declaring that there were sufficient food stocks. When they realised there were not, they then immediately allowed for trade of food, but local Indian authorities in neighbouring regions refused to allow the food to go through. On top of this, Churchill requisitioned food from Bengal and other parts of India to be sent to Soldiers he had sent to fight the Japanese and the Nazi's in Europe, which meant there was less food to feed the starving at the time. There was sufficient food to slow down the effects of the famine, but Indians of higher caste hoarded it. The result of all of these bad things happening is the famine of 1943. That is as simple as I can make that explanation.

    No, contrary to your claims, the East India Company were not to blame for the 1943 famine because they did not exist in India in 1943. Unless you have proof of this, your continued posts that they existed is simply a conspiracy theory on your part.

    And no, in the 1943 famine, the Bengal region was not blocked from growing food crops. You are confusing that famine with other famines years prior in the region.

    And really, attacking Gandhi.... It defies belief and logic. You are also wrong to accuse him of sending troops to fight the Nazi's. While Gandhi denounced Nazism, he and other leaders of the Indian National Congress refused to fight them or anyone else until India was given Independence. They began the Quit India Movement and were jailed as a result and spent the majority of the war in prison for their efforts to remove the British Government control from India. The person who involved India in the War and literally and figuratively put India at war in 1939 was the British Governor-General of India, Lord Linlithgow (Victor Hope), who did so without consulting the Indian Congress.

    So your continued assertions are not only factually incorrect, they are also unfounded and based on what appear to be conspiracies.
     
  20. madethesame Banned Banned

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    millions of people died is just a little proof i have.
     
  21. madethesame Banned Banned

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    Also, the East India Company were not involved in the 1943 famine. How do we know this? Because they did not exist in India during that time because the organisation was dismantled and made defunct by an Act of Law in India.

    [/QUOTE]
    I have already explained how and what happened in the 1943 famine and what happened in the lead up to it. Your response is to mix it with the 1770 famine and incorrectly try to claim the circumstances from that famine were the cause of the 1943 famine.
    There were a range of factors involved in the 1943 famine, some of which involved the rich and those in positions of authority hoarding food and also blocking any more food from entering the region. So millions of poor people literally starved to death. In the years prior to 1943, crop failures, bad weather and cyclones which led to tidal waves washing away large portions of the crop, black spot disease, and lower yield crops meant that the stores for following years were small to non-existent, couple that with the Japanese invading Burma and Bengal not being able to import food from Burma, as was the custom, there was not much food. What little there was was hoarded by the higher caste Indians. The Indian Government then refused to allow any food to enter the region by way of imports - Bengal imported a lot of its food - declaring that there were sufficient food stocks. When they realised there were not, they then immediately allowed for trade of food, but local Indian authorities in neighbouring regions refused to allow the food to go through. On top of this, Churchill requisitioned food from Bengal and other parts of India to be sent to Soldiers he had sent to fight the Japanese and the Nazi's in Europe, which meant there was less food to feed the starving at the time. There was sufficient food to slow down the effects of the famine, but Indians of higher caste hoarded it. The result of all of these bad things happening is the famine of 1943. That is as simple as I can make that explanation.

    about caste system : http://ajitvadakayil.blogspot.in/2011/07/untouchables-capt-ajit-vadakayil.html
    Though caste system exists but still the castes help each other. Their is strong tradition of providing free meals to poor and needy in India.

    [/QUOTE]
    No, contrary to your claims, the East India Company were not to blame for the 1943 famine because they did not exist in India in 1943. Unless you have proof of this, your continued posts that they existed is simply a conspiracy theory on your part.

    [/QUOTE]
    And no, in the 1943 famine, the Bengal region was not blocked from growing food crops. You are confusing that famine with other famines years prior in the region.
    [/QUOTE]
    And really, attacking Gandhi.... It defies belief and logic. You are also wrong to accuse him of sending troops to fight the Nazi's. While Gandhi denounced Nazism, he and other leaders of the Indian National Congress refused to fight them or anyone else until India was given Independence. They began the Quit India Movement and were jailed as a result and spent the majority of the war in prison for their efforts to remove the British Government control from India. The person who involved India in the War and literally and figuratively put India at war in 1939 was the British Governor-General of India, Lord Linlithgow (Victor Hope), who did so without consulting the Indian Congress.

    http://ajitvadakayil.blogspot.in/2013/02/the-indian-navy-mutiny-of-1946-only-war.html
    http://ajitvadakayil.blogspot.in/2011/02/murky-truths-of-sepoys-mutiny-1857.html
    [/QUOTE]
    So your continued assertions are not only factually incorrect, they are also unfounded and based on what appear to be conspiracies.[/QUOTE]
    The food was not allowed to Bengalis as they had given full support to INA in Burma. The Bengalis were intentionally stared by British government so that INA couldn't enter India and form a strong hold.
    East India Company were finaciers of War machine[/QUOTE]

    You want pieces of paper to differentiate between true and false. It happens when people get addicted.
    https://www.facebook.com/theskepticsguide/posts/10152834140641605
     
  22. madethesame Banned Banned

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  23. Bells Staff Member

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    That has been the only correct thing you have said.

    Everything else is so factually wrong, it is actually shocking. Do they not teach history in India? I mean, this is the very basis and involved the movement that led to India's independence. How can you get it so so sooooo wrong?

    I mean, I don't even know where to start. Not only are you claiming that a company that did not exist and had not existed for decades were involved in not only the famine, but now the war as well, you also incorrectly declared that Gandhi sent troops to Europe to fight the Nazi's.. How he did this remains a mystery since he was not only not in charge of India (the British Government was and it was the British who declared India at war with Hitler in 1939), Gandhi was also in prison until 1944 for going against the British and their sending Indians to fight in the war without consulting the Indians in the first place.

    Then of course we come to the fact that humans contributed to the famine in many ways. From the British and Churchill ordering that crops and grain from the region be sent to troops, but also in the form of rich Indians buying all the food and storing and hoarding it, due to lack of supply. A lack of supply that came about from the failed crops over previous years, and also from the war and the trade sanctions put in place by the Indian Government and then merchants and Indian authorities in neighbouring areas stopping any food from getting to Bengal once those sanctions were lifted to alleviate the obvious famine. Not to mention the refugees from Japanese controlled Burma also adding more mouths to feed..

    The rich and the wealthy in Bengal did not die in the famine. Why do you think that is? Because they had the means to buy in bulk and panic buy they did when demand for food was quite high due to low crop yields from previous years and the war, they then hoarded large amounts of food that should have been evenly distributed. Coupled with all the human and natural causes, all known for a fact...

    I notice in your profile in your blog you keep spamming that you claim to want to rewrite history. Rewriting it by ignoring historic fact to suit your own political agenda is not going to work. And frankly, having just googled your name, I am absolutely disgusted and it appears, I am not the only one disgusted. Of course you defend the caste system. You are a part of it. You use that blog of yours to defame people and to post absolute crap and lies. Is this what you call rewriting history? I call bull.
     
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