Proving time is static using the equivalence principle

????

Are you saying a 1/4 divided by a 1/4 = 0?
My maths is really basic, but that is primary school stuff, and the answer is 1.

And if you multiply 1/4 X 1/4 = 1/16 or 0.0625

What planet are you on?

 

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No doubt.

 

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Beaconator, 1/1, is considered 1, or a "whole" - just like 1/2, is considered one half, or a "half"!

1 = 1, or 1/16 = 1/16, or .0625 = .0625, would be considered "equal"!

Also, percents are fractions : 10% = 1/10, or 10/100, or Ten-One Hundredth's / 6.25% = 1/16, or 625/10000, or Six Hundred Twenty Five-Ten Thousandth's!

 

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Whops I suppose there goes my credibility.. did the transformation right, and forgot how to multiply.

Yes 4×4=16 not 8. My bad. Damn.

In the equation you can't multiply 1/4 by 1/4. If you did you would end up with 1/16 over 1/4 equal to a fourth because fractions are not set to zero they are set to one. fractions are part of a whole. Equations are equal to zero. The distinction makes them easier to differentiate.

This idea only applies to numbers not ratios or constants as fractions.

When you take .25÷.25 you get 1, but you could have gotten \( \frac{1/16}{1/4} - 1/4 = 0\)
More of a solution than a fraction of one.

 

Huh?

Are you saying you can't multiply one quarter by on quarter because:

\(\frac{1}{4}\times\frac{1}{4}=\frac {\frac{1}{16}} {\frac{1}{4}} = \frac{1}{4} \)

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No there are two fractions divided by each other.

\( \frac{1/4}{1/4} \)

In order to solve the equation if we didn't know the answer would be cross multiplication. After which you would have two answers for the fraction one cancels out with 1 and the other sums to zero yet equivocates the same answer.


\( \frac{1/4}{1/4} =1\)


\(1/4 \frac{1/4}{1/4}= 1/4 \)

So straight multiplication doesn't help.

 

Okey-dokey you have a nice evening....:bugeye:

 

"Totally *generic" = *'A whole group class' / *'having a non proprietary name' / * 'having no distinctive quality or application' .

'Langrangian' - that's the used expression by you that occurs elsewhere also, in this thread. Is that not another expression - perhaps derived - from - 'LaGrange'?

In the Beer w/ Straw perspective, your response of equations is 'squigglies' to me. That (equation) expression looks alien since I don't do math, etceteras.

Is your proferred equation proof that LaGrange or 'Langrangian' is 'a prediction of one (unexplained) way of going about it'?

Did I spell your offered 'Langrangian' right?

Followed by an equally reassuring "There's no doubt may be better ways"?

Should I be ok with this?