The Christian religion mainly holds that Jesus is the only son of God. Hindus (at least some) hold that Jesus was an incarnation of Vishnu (God). But in what way do the scriptures disagree? This is what I am asking. jan.
I said: Hindus (at least some) hold that Jesus was an incarnation of Vishnu (God). I asked: But in what way do the scriptures disagree? Do you know? jan.
How is Jesus not being mentioned as an incarnation of Vishnu, within Vedic literature a disagreement between the Bible and the Vedas? jan.
Bible: Jesus mentioned as the son of God. Hindu scriptures: Jesus not mentioned as the son of God. If true then this is a disagreement: a disagreement does not need to be a case of saying the exact opposite (i.e. it does not require Hindu scriptures to state that Jesus was not the Son of God) - it merely needs to be a lack of consensus. But on that matter, this is quite an interesting article, which suggests that any mention of Jesus in Hindu scripture was actually inserted by Christians as a means of surepetitiously converting them to take Jesus as their Saviour... http://www.stephen-knapp.com/jesus_predicted_in_the_vedic_literature.htm
Bible: Jesus mentioned as the son of God Hindu scriptures: Jesus not mentioned. Where is the ''lack of consensus''? Not mentioning a particular personality, is not a lack of consensus. It's still in the book though. Still think there is a disagreement? jan.
Is that still your position? Most would disagree with you for the simple reason that a consensus is a general agreement between things. If there is no such general agreement then there is a lack of general agreement. So, as said, if it is true that Hindu scriptures do not mention Jesus then since general agreement = consensus, we can indeed say that there is a lack of consensus. I didn't say I thought there was a disagreement. I said that "if true" (that Hindu scriptures do not mention Jesus) then there is disagreement / lack of consensus. Do I think there is now? I don't even know if these books are considered scripture or not. Do you? If so, do you think it possible that the mention of Jesus could have been inserted into the texts during the British rule of India, and not be historically authentic?
For the sake of the argument, it doesn't matter what my position is, but I will take that position just to make a valid point. Never the less, a consensus is based on opinions, so what is it about the vedas that forms the opinion that there is a disagreement on Jesus? Can you actually go into it? Read above. If it wasn't inserted, would it change anything about how you view it? jan.
If you take a position just to make a valid point, that says that it's not your position, even though you stated it previously as if it were. Hey ho. Please Register or Log in to view the hidden image! A consensus is an agreement of opinion. If parties simply to don't offer an opinion then how can there be agreement. The absence of agreement/consensus can otherwise be referred to as a disagreement. It's a matter of semantics, of the meaning of "disagreement", not the detail of the Vedas / Bible. Not significantly. It would add information about Jesus' early life that is missing from the Bible. Would it change anything about how you viewed it if your current view on it was reversed? I.e. if you think it wasn't inserted, would it change anything about how you view it if it was inserted, and vice versa?