alpha,what is the differance of a observable violation? you say causality violation only happen if observed?
How was this provision of the rules proven? I don't think that it satisfies Karl Popper's criterion of falsifiability.
I think it had something to do with a bear shitting in the woods and if it happened if anyone were around to smell it.
Their next effect. How many ****ing times do you need to be told? They certainly don't obey \(E^{2}=m^{2}+|p|^{2}\) and individually they don't have to obey causality, but they can.
Because you've asked the same sodding questions again and again in this thread, ignoring the answers or showing you have the comprehension skills of a drunk toddler and you've done this in numerous threads. My last post was a piss take of "If a tree falls in the woods and noone is around is hear it, does it make a noise", because the non-causal effects of virtual particles don't get measured, yet they are not automatically causal individually. In short, the reason it's cesspooled is because you're an obsessed idiot.
wolv1---I think we're all frustrated with your questions, because you are asking the same thing repeatedly. I am going to lock this thread, and assign you homework. Go back over the responses you've received to your questions, and the resources we've recommended. Study them. Then, if you're still confused, come back and ask well-formed questions. Your constant spamming of our inboxes and our forum will not be tolerated.
I think that calling it a non-causal effect means that a scientist simply wants others to accept his authority on the subject.
They never appear as actual particles, they only exist when actual particles interact. Look up what a 'loop diagram' is. All 'actual particles' are on shell. You never seem them off shell and that's the definition of virtual. Seriously, if you're so obsessed with them, open a book.