Question 4: Is the production of great works of literature favored by the conditions of modern civilized life? This is the fourth (obviously) in a series of questions I've been doing out of a book I have from the late 1800s. It's been a while since the last one, for which I apologize. Some of the questions might belong in forums other than Free Thoughts but I'm putting them all here to keep them together as a set.
I would argue that the following post-WWI authors have produced literary classiccs: Tolkien Rand Frank Herbert Orwell Lewis.
The world is changing and the "great literature" is not necessarily written in English any more. Gabriel García Márquez, Carlos Fuentes, Jorge Amado... Latin Americans are churning the stuff out. Don't forget that "literature" includes theater, which in the modern era includes movies. There have been a number of great movies made since the medium was invented. If you're taking the elitist position that "literature" must be written down, then don't forget that most of the people who made Shakespeare famous--not to mention nearly all of the people who made Homer famous--were illiterate. Also don't forget that "greatness" is judged by the future. A work of art has to connect with people of future generations, not just be of its time. We have no way of knowing which of the works that have been written recently and speak to us are still going to speak to people several centuries from now.
