oxymoron
03-05-04, 08:06 AM
I have a quotient:
(2n^4 + 4n^2 + 3n - 5)/(n^4 - n^3 + 2n^2 - 80)
To show that it converges to 2 by "first principles" I cannot simply prove by the algebra of limits can I? That is, to divide throughout by the highest power of n (the most influential) and then prove each remaining term's (either 1/n^x -> 0 or c -> c) limit. By doing it this way It is rather easy to show that it converges to 2.
However, I have to admit, there must be a harder way!
I was thinking along the lines of exactly how the algebra of limits is proven itself! For example (as I noted above) the limit of a constant is a constant. How is this proven?
Fix e>0, we want an N E N such that n >_ N
Hence |c - c| < e
<=> 0 < e therefore any N will do and so I have shown that the limit of a constant is itself.
Furthermore, I can show rigourously that the limit of 1/n^r is zero.
So would I have to incorporate each individual proof of each limit of each term in the quotient to show by first principles that the quotient converges to zero?
I would I simply treat the quotient as a whole and find another quotient which is always bigger than (but much simpler than) the original. And then apply the Order Axioms to epsilon?
Or is there an easier way?
(2n^4 + 4n^2 + 3n - 5)/(n^4 - n^3 + 2n^2 - 80)
To show that it converges to 2 by "first principles" I cannot simply prove by the algebra of limits can I? That is, to divide throughout by the highest power of n (the most influential) and then prove each remaining term's (either 1/n^x -> 0 or c -> c) limit. By doing it this way It is rather easy to show that it converges to 2.
However, I have to admit, there must be a harder way!
I was thinking along the lines of exactly how the algebra of limits is proven itself! For example (as I noted above) the limit of a constant is a constant. How is this proven?
Fix e>0, we want an N E N such that n >_ N
Hence |c - c| < e
<=> 0 < e therefore any N will do and so I have shown that the limit of a constant is itself.
Furthermore, I can show rigourously that the limit of 1/n^r is zero.
So would I have to incorporate each individual proof of each limit of each term in the quotient to show by first principles that the quotient converges to zero?
I would I simply treat the quotient as a whole and find another quotient which is always bigger than (but much simpler than) the original. And then apply the Order Axioms to epsilon?
Or is there an easier way?