mountainhare
04-18-06, 09:57 PM
I just read this really cute post by an individual trying to rationalize land theft.
When you phrase a claim as you did you are lumping all white men together as having stole ‘the land’. While it is true that some white men did as you said, there were also brown men who did the same as the Spanish and French also did this. There were also a greater number of 'white' men who did not engage in this at all. Hence your argument is only partially correct. It is also only partially correct for there is no way for you to prove that all land was in fact stolen as there was no real method of documentation as to what lands were owned. You are also assuming that ownership meant the same to Indians as it does to us or did to Europeans. You are assuming that lands were not given to ‘the white men’, but you have no evidence that this did not occur. In short your entire argument on this point is nothing more than a hasty generalization.
You were called on it and rather than clarify your argument you cling to your previous half truth and try to twist your previously made statements to mean that since some white men did as you described your statement is accurate and your logic sound. The reality is that your first statement on this subject was poorly constructed, your argument was built on a hasty generalization, and you are now engaging in a fruitless effort to defend an un-defendable generalization.
Not that I will continue this discussion, but to demonstrate that there is evidence of controversy surrounding legality in land transactions....
Quote:
Alden Vaughan would like to lay to rest the many "myths" concerning how the Puritans obtained land from the Indians. He maintains that the Indians were almost never the victims of unscrupulous colonists who obtained land from the Indians either by getting them drunk, resorting to some sort of trickery beyond the Indian experience, or trading for a handful of trinkets. Francis Jennings and James Axtell disagree.
Jennings acknowledges that the English, more often than not, obtained Indian land by legal means, but he does so with some qualification. "Euroamericans competing for Indian lands - whether governments, companies or individuals -legitimized their claims by recognizing or inventing whatever purported rights might be severally available to them." (37) The first of these inventions which shall be explored will be the notion of VACUUM DOMICILIUM.
http://newman.baruch.cuny.edu/DIGITA...90.htm#part_37
And I even provided a site that documents the critics qualifications and explanations of some of these schemes used, but I shall say no more on the subject for I would not want to veer any more than necessary.
Are all Americans like this? Are all Americans really so brainwashed?
When you phrase a claim as you did you are lumping all white men together as having stole ‘the land’. While it is true that some white men did as you said, there were also brown men who did the same as the Spanish and French also did this. There were also a greater number of 'white' men who did not engage in this at all. Hence your argument is only partially correct. It is also only partially correct for there is no way for you to prove that all land was in fact stolen as there was no real method of documentation as to what lands were owned. You are also assuming that ownership meant the same to Indians as it does to us or did to Europeans. You are assuming that lands were not given to ‘the white men’, but you have no evidence that this did not occur. In short your entire argument on this point is nothing more than a hasty generalization.
You were called on it and rather than clarify your argument you cling to your previous half truth and try to twist your previously made statements to mean that since some white men did as you described your statement is accurate and your logic sound. The reality is that your first statement on this subject was poorly constructed, your argument was built on a hasty generalization, and you are now engaging in a fruitless effort to defend an un-defendable generalization.
Not that I will continue this discussion, but to demonstrate that there is evidence of controversy surrounding legality in land transactions....
Quote:
Alden Vaughan would like to lay to rest the many "myths" concerning how the Puritans obtained land from the Indians. He maintains that the Indians were almost never the victims of unscrupulous colonists who obtained land from the Indians either by getting them drunk, resorting to some sort of trickery beyond the Indian experience, or trading for a handful of trinkets. Francis Jennings and James Axtell disagree.
Jennings acknowledges that the English, more often than not, obtained Indian land by legal means, but he does so with some qualification. "Euroamericans competing for Indian lands - whether governments, companies or individuals -legitimized their claims by recognizing or inventing whatever purported rights might be severally available to them." (37) The first of these inventions which shall be explored will be the notion of VACUUM DOMICILIUM.
http://newman.baruch.cuny.edu/DIGITA...90.htm#part_37
And I even provided a site that documents the critics qualifications and explanations of some of these schemes used, but I shall say no more on the subject for I would not want to veer any more than necessary.
Are all Americans like this? Are all Americans really so brainwashed?