Rock
11-03-99, 11:17 PM
Degeneracy pressure for non-relativistic electrons is given as p~1/((d^2)(Me)) where d is the mean inter electron distance and Me is electron mass, a similar equation is given for neutron degeneracy pressure p~1/((d^2)(Mn)). A particle is non-relativistic when T*>Mx where T=temperature and Mx is the particles mass.
What I'm wondering is: does anyone have of a good reason for all Fermions degeneracy pressures not to be represented by the general equation p~1/((d^2)(Mf))? Barring situations where d^2 is sufficient to cause Mf to no longer exist, of course (as in the situation in neutron stars, where the electrons are absorbed into the protons: e+p=n+v).
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Este est percepi - to be is to be perceived.
:-) -R.
What I'm wondering is: does anyone have of a good reason for all Fermions degeneracy pressures not to be represented by the general equation p~1/((d^2)(Mf))? Barring situations where d^2 is sufficient to cause Mf to no longer exist, of course (as in the situation in neutron stars, where the electrons are absorbed into the protons: e+p=n+v).
------------------
Este est percepi - to be is to be perceived.
:-) -R.